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QUESTION 1 What is the valid shard range for an object DN? A. 1-64 B. 1-16 C. 0-15 D. 1-32 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about Cisco ACI interaction with STP in legacy networks are true? (Choose two) A. External switches ignore flooded BPDU frames received from the Cisco ACI fabric. B. BPDU guard is enabled on FEX ports by default. C. BPDU guard cannot be configured on leaf edge ports. D. STP is enabled by default within the Cisco ACI fabric. E. BPDU frame is flooded within EPG No configuration is required. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3 During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to understand what has impacted the score? A. faults B. audit togs C. events D. accounting logs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ? A. three Broadcom and one Alpine B. two Broadcom and two Alpine C. two Broadcom and one Alpine D. one Broadcom and two Alpine Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true? A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state. B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1. C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member. D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0? (Choose two.) A. PortChannel Policy B. Monitoring Policy C. CDP Policy D. LACP Policy E. VLAN Policy Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit shell:domains = domain / Role1 | Role2 | Role3 / Role4 | Role5 | Role6 In the Cisco AV Pair, which two options are correct? (Choose two.) A. Role1 = Read B. Role2 = Read C. Role5 = Write D. Role2 = Write E. Role6 = Write F. Role1 = Write Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8 Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true\\’? (Choose two.) A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain. B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding. C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN. D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood. E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 Where does the VIP for the vPC come from? A. assigned by Cisco ARC from the management tenant IP space. B. allocated from the vPC domain number assigned to the vPC peers. C. DHCP from the infra TEP pool leaf portion. D. DHCP from the infra TEP pool VIP portion. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which command is used to successfully SSH into a Cisco ARC or switch CLI using a remote authentication server? A. apic#rad_check//[email protected] B. ssh apic#rad_check\\[email protected] C. ssh apic#ad_ch?k//[email protected] D. ssh apic@rad_check\\[email protected] Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB? A. 1/97-1/100 B. 1/97-1/104 C. 1/97-1/108 D. 1/100-1/108 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated? A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system. B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state. C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system. D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit F16438[FSM:STAGE:FAILED]: Establish connection Stage: comp/prov-VMware/ ctrlr-[RTPACILab]-TestVcenter Failed to retrieve ServiceContent from the vCenter server 10.122.253.152(FSM-STAGE:ifc:vmmmgr:CompCtrlrAdd:Connect)
Which option is a potential reason why you would see this output while provisioning a DVS? A. The specified data center does not exist on the vCenter m question. B. The Cisco APIC(s) cannot reach the vCenter host/vm. C. The Service Content process has crashed. D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the vswitch policy tied to the corresponding AAEP. Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 3 A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement? A. self-registration guest portal B. client provisioning C. native supplicant provisioning D. local web auth Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a wireless LAN controller and wants to use the combination of authentication and privacy protocols with the highest security available. Which protocols must be configured? A. CBC-DES with HMAC-MD5 B. CFB-AES-128 with HMAC-MD5 C. CBC-DES with HMAC-SHA D. CBF-AES-128 with HMAC-SHA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 An engineer is working on a remote site that is configured using FlexConnect. They are worried that the access points will not send RADIUS requests directly to the authentication server is standalone mode. Which command ensures direct authentication using the default ports as defined on the WLC? A. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123 B. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123 C. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123 D. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 An engineer is configuring a BYOD deployment strategy and prefers a single SSID model. Which technology is required to accomplish this configuration? A. mobility service engine B. wireless control system C. identity service engine D. Prime Infrastructure Correct Answer: C Explanation: Please refer to the section “Single SSID Wireless BYOD Self Registration” of the below mentioned link. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/how_to/HowTo-61-BYOD-Onboarding_Registering_and_Provisioning.pdf
QUESTION 9 An engineer is changing the authentication method of a wireless network from EAP-FAST to EAP-TLS. Which two changes are necessary? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Secure ACS is required. B. A Cisco NAC server is required. C. All authenticating clients require their own certificates. D. The authentication server now requires a certificate. E. The users require the Cisco AnyConnect client. Correct Answer: CD Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1300-series/prod_qas09186a00802030dc.html
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. What do the red circles represent in the exhibit?
A. detected interferers B. wIPs attacker C. RSSI cutoff D. zones of impact Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have? A. 8 B. 2 C. 6 D. 16 E. 4 Correct Answer: A The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series, CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table below:
QUESTION 12 How should the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2 and the Cisco WLC v7.0 be configured to support wireless client authentication? A. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (Cisco Airespace) B. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (IETF) C. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco Airespace) D. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco IOS) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which option determines which RADIUS server is preferred the most by the Cisco WLC? A. the Server Index (Priority) drop-down list B. the server status C. the server IP address D. the port number Correct Answer: A If you are adding a new server, choose a number from theServer Index (Priority) drop-down list to specify the priority order of this server in relation to any other configured RADIUS servers providing the same service. You can configure up to 17 servers. If the controller cannot reach the first server, it tries the second one in the list, then the third one if necessary, and so on. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html
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QUESTION 1 You are employed as a network administrator at consoto.com. Contoso.com has in an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All Servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. A contoso.com server ,named Server1,hosts the Active Directory Certificate Services Server role and utilizes a hardware security module(HSM) to safeguard its private key. You have beed instructed to backup the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) database,log files,and private key regularly. You should not use a utility supplied by the hardware security module (HSM) creator. Which of the following actions should you take? A. You should consider scheduling an incremental backup B. You Should consider making use of the certutil.exe command. C. You should consider schedulling a differential backup D. You should consider schedulling a copy backup Correct Answer: B A. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil B. -Backup, -backupdb, -backupKey: You can use Certutil.exe to dump and display certification authority (CA) configuration information, configure Certificate Services, backup and restore CA components, and verify certificates, key pairs, and certificate chains. C. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil D. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil http://technet.microsoft.com/library/cc732443.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en- us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backup http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupDB http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/ library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupKey http://blogs.technet.com/b/pki/archive/2010/04/20/disaster-recovery-procedures-for- theactive-directorycertificate- services-adcs.aspx
QUESTION 2 You network contains one Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. All domain computers use Server1 for DNS. You sign adatum.com by using DNSSEC. You need to configure the domain computers to validate DNS responses for adatum.com records. What should you configure in Group Policy? A. Network List Manager Policies B. Network Access Protection (NAP) C. Name Resolution Policy D. Public Key Policy Correct Answer: C Name resolution policy needs to be configured in group policy. “In both example 1 and example 2, validation is not required for the secure.contoso.com zone because the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is not configured to require validation.” https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj200221.aspx
QUESTION 3 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1. A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1. When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receives the following error message.
You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not appear. What should you do? A. Run the Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet. B. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools. C. Modify the PATH system variable. D. Add Admin1 to the Cert Publishers group. Correct Answer: B * Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services The error message is related to missing role configuration. * Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and Certification Authority Web Enrollment Roles. * Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) is an Active Directory tool that lets administrators customize services in order to issue and manage public key certificates. AD CS included: CA Web enrollment – connects users to a CA with a Web browser Certification authorities (CAs) – manages certificate validation and issues certificates Etc. Incorrect: Not A. The CA is installed, it just need to be configured correctly. Note: Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority The Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet performs installation and configuration of the AD CS CA role service. Reference: Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services in Server 2012 Error 0x800070002; Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) Definition http://searchwindowsserver.techtarget.com/definition/Active-Directory-Certificate-Services- AD-CS
QUESTION 4 You are about to promote a server running the Windows Server 2012 R2 operating system to domain controller. The domain is currently running at the Windows Server 2008 domain functional level. Your account is a member of the Domain Admins group. Which additional groups should your account be a member of to ensure that the environment is appropriately configured for this domain controller running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose two. Each answer forms part of a complete solution.) A. Schema Admins B. Enterprise Admins C. Account Operators D. Server Operators Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing. A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start. You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss. Which Advanced Boot Option should you select? A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement B. Disable automatic restart on system failure C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced) D. Repair Your Computer Correct Answer: A A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a kernel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.Incorrect: Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs. Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed. Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss. Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134246.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/hardware/ff547565(v=vs.85).aspx
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 has an IPv6 scope named Scope1. You implement an additional DHCP server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to provide high availability for Scope1. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you do? A. Install and configure Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server1 and Server2. B. Create a scope on Server2. C. Configure DHCP failover on Server1. D. Install and configure Failover Clustering on Server1 and Server2. Correct Answer: C Overview: Configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console To configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console, right- click a DHCP scope or right- click IPv4 and then click Configure Failover.Configure Failover The Configure Failover wizard guides you through configuring DHCP failover on the selected scope. Note: The DHCP server failover feature, available in Windows Server 2012 and later, provides the ability to have two DHCP servers provide IP addresses and option configuration to the same subnet or scope, providing for continuous availability of DHCP service to clients. Incorrect: Not A. NLB is not related to DHCP scope availability. Not B. DHCP failover requirements include: DHCP Scopes requirement: At least one IPv4 DHCP scope must be configured on the primary DHCP server. The same DHCP scope ID, or an overlapping scope, must not be configured on the failover partner. Not D. Failover clustering is possibly, but would not minimize administration. Reference: Deploy DHCP Failover
QUESTION 7 Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. From the Group Policy Management console, you view the details of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that the comments field of GPO1 contains a detailed description of GPO1. What should you do? Exhibit: * Missing* A. From Group Policy Management, click View, and then click Customize. B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, edit the properties of contoso.com/System/Policies/{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE –ED765F065FF5}. C. Open GPO1 in the Group Policy Management Editor, and then modify the properties of GPO1. D. From Notepad, edit \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE –ED765F065FF5}\gpt.ini. Correct Answer: C You can include comments for each Group Policy object. You can use this space to document the Group Policy object and why its implementation is important to your environment. Commenting GPOs allows you to later use keyword filter to help you quickly find GPOs with matching keywords. Adding a comment to a Group Policy object Open the Group Policy Management Console. Expand the Group Policy Objects node. Right-click the Group Policy object you want to comment and then click Edit . In the console tree, right-click the name of the Group Policy object and then click Properties . Click the Comment tab. Type your comments in the Comment box. Click OK Reference: Comment a Group Policy Object https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770974.aspx
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named corp.contoso.com. You deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). You have a rights policy template named Template1. Revocation is disabled for the template. A user named User1 can open content that is protected by Template1 while the user is connected to the corporate network. When User1 is disconnected from the corporate network, the user cannot open the protected content even if the user previously opened the content. You need to ensure that the content protected by Template1 can be opened by users who are disconnected from the corporate network. What should you modify? A. The User Rights settings of Template1 B. The templates file location of the AD RMS cluster C. The Extended Policy settings of Template1 D. The exclusion policies of the AD RMS cluster Correct Answer: C * The extended rights policy of a template controls how content licenses are to be implemented. The extended rights policy template settings are specified by using the Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) administration site. The available settings control persistence of author rights, whether trusted browsers are supported, license persistence within the content, and enforcement of any application-specific data. * You can add trust policies so that AD RMS can process licensing requests for content that was rights protected. Reference: Extended Policy Template Information; AD RMS and Server Design http://technet.microsoft.com/en- us/library/ee221071(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. Server2 is a file server. Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO) while they are connected to the internal network. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory. B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy. C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service. D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2. E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2. Correct Answer: AC * Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined. * In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices, locations, and access times. Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The forest contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC. The sites contain four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
An IP site link exits between each site. You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB. You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless all of the domain controllers in SiteB are unavailable. What should you do? A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC. B. Crate additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2. C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC. D. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4. Correct Answer: C By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by SiteB rather than by SiteA.
QUESTION 11 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager role service installed. You attempt to delete a classification property and you receive the error message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to delete the isConfidential classification property. What should you do? A. Delete the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property. B. Disable the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property. C. Set files that have an isConfidential classification property value of Yes to No. D. Clear the isConfidential classification property value of all files. Correct Answer: A You would have to delete the classification rule in order to delete the classification property.
QUESTION 12 Your network contans one active directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You perform daily backups of the data on Server1 to microsoft azure. You need to restore the data from the 1st backup of Server1 to Server2. What should you do first? A. On Server2, install the azure backup agent. B. In the domain, add server1 to the backup operators group. C. From the azure management portal, modify the configuration of the backup vault. D. On Server2, install the windows server backup feature. Correct Answer: A https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/backup-azure-restore-windows- server/#recover-to-an- alternate-machine
QUESTION 13 You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use? A. the dism.exe command B. the ocsetup.exe command C. the setup.exe command D. the Install-Module cmdlet Correct Answer: A The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM: Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:ServerGui- Shell /featurename:Server- Gui-Mgmt
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QUESTION 1 You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to five servers. The package must meet the following requirements: .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR) integration in SQL Server must not be enabled. The Connection Managers used in the package must be configurable without editing and redeploying the package. The deployment procedure must be automated as much as possible. Performance must be maximized. You need to set up a deployment strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do? A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project. B. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server. C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command. D. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command. E. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command. F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command. G. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility. H. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project. I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model. J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap. K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort. What should you use? A. Express on task B. Data Cleansing transformation C. Fuzzy Lookup transformation D. Term Lookup transformation E. Data Profiling task Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night. The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest- matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large. If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value. The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50. Many values are incorrectly matched. You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance. What should you do? A. Change the Exhaustive property to True. B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55. C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40. D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup. Correct Answer: B http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx
QUESTION 4 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment Model. The project will be deployed to an SSIS catalog folder where Environments have already been created. You need to deploy the project. What should you do? A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package. B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task. C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package. D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job. E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package. F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table. G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table. H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table. I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow. J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow, K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option. L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option. M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard. N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure. O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure. P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures. Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError event text to the table. R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnTaskFailed event text to the table. Correct Answer: M
QUESTION 5 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse. The package consists of several data flow tasks. The package experiences intermittent errors in the data flow tasks. If any data flow task fails, all package error information must be captured and written to a SQL Server table by using an OLE DB connection manager. You need to ensure that the package error information is captured and written to the table. What should you do? A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package. B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task. C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package. D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job. E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package. F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table. G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table. H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table. I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow. J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow. K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option. L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option. M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard. N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure. O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure. P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures. Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError event text to the table. R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnTaskFailed event text to the table. Correct Answer: I
QUESTION 6 You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) data flow to load sales transactions from a source system into a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. One of the columns in the data source is named ProductCode. Some of the data to be loaded will reference products that need special processing logic in the data flow. You need to enable separate processing streams for a subset of rows based on the source product code. Which Data Flow transformation should you use? A. Script Component B. Audit C. Destination Assistant D. Data Conversion Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes. What should you do? A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container. B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container. C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required. D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required. Correct Answer: D Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137749.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en us/library/microsoft.sqlserver.dts.runtime.dtstransactionoption.aspx
QUESTION 8 You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day. Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively. You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables. What should you do? A. Create a time mapping table. B. Partition the fact tables by day. C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity. D. Join the two fact tables. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 You are designing an Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) solution that loads data into dimension tables. The ETL process involves many transformation steps. You need to ensure that the design can provide: Auditing information for compliance and business user acceptance Tracking and unique identification of records for troubleshooting and error correction What should you do? A. Develop a Master Data Services (MDS) solution. B. Develop a Data Quality Services (DQS) solution. C. Create a version control repository for the ETL solution. D. Develop a custom data lineage solution. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 You are designing a fact table in a SQL Server database. The fact table must meet the following requirements: Include a columnstore index. Allow users to choose up to 10 dimension tables and up to five facts at one time. Maximize performance of queries that aggregate measures by using any of the 10 dimensions. Support billions of rows. Use the most efficient design strategy. You need to design the fact table to meet the requirements. What should you do? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.) A. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the dimensional key columns. B. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the measure columns. C. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the dimensional key columns and the measure columns. D. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on only the measure columns. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 To support the implementation of new reports, Active Directory data will be downloaded to a SQL Server database by using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2012 package. The following requirements must be met: All the user information for a given Active Directory group must be downloaded to a SQL Server table. The download process must traverse the Active Directory hierarchy recursively. You need to configure the package to meet the requirements by using the least development effort. Which item should you use? A. Script task B. Script component configured as a transformation C. Script component configured as a source D. Script component configured as a destination Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors. Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination. You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement. Which transformation types should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Slowly Changing Dimension B. pivot C. Lookup D. Union All E. Merge Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to read and write data from a Windows Azure SQL Database database to a server that runs SQL Server 2012. The connection will be used by data flow tasks in multiple SSIS packages. The address of the target Windows Azure SQL Database database will be provided by a project parameter. You need to create a solution to meet the requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort and maximizing data flow performance. What should you do? A. Use an SSIS Script task that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it. B. Use an SSIS Script transformation that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it. C. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) function that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data, deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data. D. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) stored procedure that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data, deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data. Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which of the following devices acts as a gateway between clients and servers? A. WINS server B. Proxy server C. Content filter D. DNS server Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the following would be used to verify this situation? A. Environmental monitor B. Multimeter C. Toner probe D. Protocol analyzer Correct Answer: D A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time? A. Network log B. Baseline C. Flow data D. Interface statistics Correct Answer: B To successfully baseline a network it is important to consider two functions; performance at protocol level and performance at application level. There are many significant metrics to consider at the protocol level, but only a few which are critical. The most important is bandwidth utilization compared with bandwidth availability. The most likely cause of poor network performance is insufficient bandwidth. Trending bandwidth utilization allows you to recognize problem areas, provide enough bandwidth to reach performance objectives, and predict future capacity requirements. Changes in bandwidth utilization patterns also provide a clear indication of network usage alterations, such as a change in end-user behavior, or the unauthorized addition of an application.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following wireless parameters may need to be modified when a new cordless telephone is installed? A. Encryption type B. SSID C. IP address D. Channel Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem? A. Low PoE wattage B. Opposing antenna polarizations C. Short distance between antennas D. WPA 2 encryption Correct Answer: B The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth\\’s surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.
QUESTION 6 Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point? A. Enable an SNMP agent B. Enable network mapping C. Set monitoring SSID D. Select WPA2 Correct Answer: A Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).
QUESTION 7 A company has a remote access VPN and wants to ensure that if a username and password are compromised, the corporate network will remain secure. Which of the following will allow the company to achieve its security goal? A. Posture assessment B. Kerberos C. TACACS+ D. Two-factor authentication Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A network administrator wants to perform a test to see if any systems are passing clear text through the network. Which of the following would be used? A. Social engineering B. Packet sniffing C. Rogue access point D. Man-in-the-middle Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A technician is tasked with rewiring a CAT5e SOHO network with 10 existing computers. The users are currently running at 100 Mbps and would like to be upgraded to 1000 Mbps. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Upgrade the existing computers B. Purchase a new 802.11ac access point and install. C. Install CAT6 wiring for the SOHO network D. Verify the network cards can support 1Gbps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable? A. Cable has been looped too many times. B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector. C. Cable is too warm. D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light. Correct Answer: D Cat 5 is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE- TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).
QUESTION 11 An 802.11b wireless network has a maximum data rate of: A. 11 Mbps. B. 20 Mbps. C. 28 Mbps. D. 54 Mbps. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all network devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC adapter. Which of the following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of the VoIP system? (Select THREE). A. WEP B. PoE C. VLANs D. SSL VPN E. IDS F. QoS Correct Answer: BCF As customer don\\’t want to use Ac adapter so Power over Ethernet is best option (PoE) as in this switch provide power to phones.Phones will transfer their power requirement via cdp to vlan assigned.And Qos provide the voice packet priority over the data packets to avoid jitter.
QUESTION 13 Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in- house support. Which of the following is the BEST choice? A. Wide Area Network B. NAT C. Virtual PBX D. Virtual LAN Correct Answer: C Virtual PBX, a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, fax- mail, and ACD queues with no customer installed equipment.
QUESTION 14 Which of the following are considered AAA authentication methods? (Select TWO). A. Kerberos B. Radius C. MS-CHAP D. TACACS+ E. 802.1X Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15 There has been an increase in Help Desk tickets related to web portal user accounts being locked out. Which of the following resources would be used to analyze the issue? A. Router logs B. Protocol analyzer C. Firewall logs D. Application logs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16 An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall for both DNS and eDNS. Which of the following default ports would need to be opened on the firewall? (Select TWO). A. TCP 23 B. TCP 53 C. TCP 123 D. UDP 23 E. UDP 53 F. UDP 123 Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 17 A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can be used for two or more networking cards? A. NIC bonding B. Proxy server C. Firewall ACLs D. VLANs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 A user reports that they are unable to connect to the network. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that the user has an IP address/subnet mask combination of 192.168.204.255/24. The default gateway for the network is 192.168.204.254. Which of the following could the user\\’s IP address be changed to so that they could connect to the network? A. 192.168.204.0/27 B. 192.168.204.1/27 C. 192.168.204.112/24 D. 192.168.204.254/24 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks? A. Host-based B. Signature-based C. Network-based D. Behavior-based Correct Answer: B Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences known to be malicious. A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and understand if you know what network behavior you\\’re trying to identify.
QUESTION 20 A user is unable to open up websites on the Internet from a browser. The administrator determines that the workstation can ping its local gateway, but not the remote web server. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the problem MOST likely exist? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Physical Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server? A. Hosts proprietary business applications B. Translates FQDN\\’s to IP addresses C. Provides network IDS/IPS security D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices Correct Answer: B Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.
QUESTION 22 Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP? A. LDAP B. HTTPS C. SIP D. SCP Correct Answer: C The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling communications protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.
QUESTION 23 Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network\\’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their devices. Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as they move between buildings? Building A Building B Building C Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption: WPA2 SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales A. Change Channel in Building B to 7 B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C C. Change Channel in Building C to 1 D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A Correct Answer: D The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is different so the user has to manually authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings. If the SSID\\’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and he will get automatic connectivity.
QUESTION 24 After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO). A. Bad Ethernet switch port B. TX/RX reversed C. Bad connectors D. Bad patch cable E. Mismatched MTU Correct Answer: CD It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.
QUESTION 25 A network has a large number of users who connect for short periods of time and the network needs to maximize the number of devices that can be configured using DHCP. Which of the following should be configured to solve this issue? A. Increase the number of reservations B. Increase exclude list C. Decrease lease times D. Decrease the scope Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which of the following protocols occurs at Layer 4 of the OSI model? A. ISDN B. IPX C. GRE D. UDP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 A technician is troubleshooting a problem where data packets are being corrupted. Which of the following connectivity problems should the technician check? A. Attenuation B. Latency C. Crosstalk D. External interference Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Users in several departments are reporting connectivity problems. The technician examines the computer and finds the following settings. The IP address is 10.0.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The default gateway is 10.0.1.1 and the DNS server is 10.0.0.15. A user can connect to the internet but not servers on other internal subnets. The technician is not able to connect with a server with an IP of 10.0.2.25. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. Default gateway B. Duplicate IP address C. Wrong DNS D. Subnet mask Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 Which of the following commands would be used to identify how many hops a data packet makes before reaching its final destination? A. route B. netstat C. traceroute D. ping 127.0.0.1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to access most network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this functionality? A. RADIUS B. Single sign on C. Multifactor authentication D. Two-factor authentication Correct Answer: B Single sign-on (SSO)is a session/user authentication process that permits a user to enter one name and password in order to access multiple applications. The process authenticates the user for all the applications they have been given rights to and eliminates further prompts when they switch applications during a particular session.
QUESTION 31 Which of the following do 802.11 networks use to handle packet collisions from multiple nodes? A. CSMA/CA B. CSU/DSU C. Ethernet Tokens D. CSMA/CD Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network? A. Evil twin B. Honeypot C. DMZ D. Honeynet Correct Answer: B In computer terminology, a honeypot is a trap set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems.
QUESTION 33 Which of the following can determine the last time an address lease was renewed on a network device? A. System log B. Packet sniffer C. Time domain reflectometer D. Stateful packet filter Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of the phones at full power? A. 96W B. 168W C. 240W D. 369.6W Correct Answer: B The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.
QUESTION 35 Which of the following transmission methods do DHCP enabled devices use to request an IP address? A. Broadcast B. Directed broadcast C. Unicast D. Multicast Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A network administrator is configuring PXE boot to reimage a computer lab. Which of the following must be configured on the existing DHCP server to specify the IP address of the imaging server from which the clients must boot? A. Scope B. Reservation C. Option D. Lease Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37 Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope? A. Reservations B. Lease times C. Removing IPs from the active leases D. Configuring the DNS options Correct Answer: A Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.
QUESTION 38 A SOHO client has tasked Joe, a technician, with setting up a basic SOHO network to support four laptops and one desktop PC. The client would also like to have a basic wireless network to use for internal devices only that is secure. Given the list of requirements, which of the following devices would Joe need to purchase for his client? (Select TWO). A. IDS B. Repeater C. Switch D. WAP E. UTM device Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 39 A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation? A. Run the dig command on the workstation. B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation. C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation. D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation. Correct Answer: D The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view information about the configured network interfaces.
QUESTION 40 A computer has lost network connectivity. The network technician determines the network cable and the cable drop are both good. Which of the following would the technician use to test the computer\\’s NIC? A. Cable certifier B. Throughput tester C. Loopback plug D. Multimeter Correct Answer: C
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Incorrect: 
Configure Failover 
