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Popular Amazon ANS-C00 dumps List

AWS Certified Advanced Networking – Specialty: https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-advanced-networking-specialty/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon ANS-C00 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
Your organization requires strict adherence to a change control process for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2)
and VPC environments. The organization uses AWS CloudFormation as the AWS service to control and implement
changes. Which combination of three services provides an alert for changes made outside of AWS CloudFormation?
(Choose three.)
A. AWS Config
B. AWS Simple Notification Service
C. AWS CloudWatch metrics
D. AWS Lambda
E. AWS CloudFormation
F. AWS Identify and Access Management
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 2
A company\\’s IT Security team needs to ensure that all servers within an Amazon VPC can communicate with a list of
five approved external IPs only. The team also wants to receive a notification every time any server tries to open a
connection with a non-approved endpoint.
What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?
A. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to ALL.
Create an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter on the VPC Flow Logs log group filtered by REJECT. Create an alarm for this
metric to notify the Security team.
B. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and the specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and
link the S3 object to the GuardDuty trusted IP list. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule on all GuardDuty
findings to trigger an Amazon SNS notification to the Security team.
C. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to
REJECT. Set an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter for the log group on every event. Create an alarm for this metric to
notify the Security team.
D. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link
the S3 object to the GuardDuty threat IP list. Integrate GuardDuty with a compatible SIEM to report on every alarm from
GuardDuty.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A Network Engineer needs to create a public virtual interface on the company\\’s AWS Direct Connect connection and
only import routes which originated from the same region as the Direct Connect location What action should accomplish
this?
A. Configure a prefix-list on the customer router containing the AWS IP address ranges for the specific region.
B. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes with the 7224:8100 BGP community attribute.
C. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3.
D. Configure a filter in the console and only allow routes advertised by AWS without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An organization will be extending its existing on-premises infrastructure into the cloud. The design consists of a transit
VPC that contains stateful firewalls that will be deployed in a highly available configuration across two Availability Zones
for automatic failover.
What MUST be configured for this design to work? (Choose two.)
A. A different Autonomous System Number (ASN) for each firewall.
B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing
C. Autonomous system (AS) path prepending
D. Static routing
E. Equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP)
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
A corporate network routing table contains 624 individual RFC 1918 and public IP prefixes. You have two AWS Direct
Connect connectors. You configure a private virtual interface on both connections to a virtual private gateway. The
virtual private gateway is not currently attached to a VPC. Neither BGP session will maintain the Established state on
the customer router. The AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interfaces as Down.
What could you do to address the problem so that the AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interface as
Available?
A. Attach the virtual private gateway to a VPC and enable route propagation.
B. Filter the public IP pre? xes on the corporate network from the private virtual interface.
C. Change the BGP advertisements from the corporate network to only be a default route.
D. Attach the second virtual interface to an alternative virtual private gateway. Correct Answer: D

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Popular Amazon CLF-C01 dumps List

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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner：https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-cloud-practitioner/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon CLF-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A characteristic of edge locations is that they:
A. host Amazon EC2 instances are closer to users.
B. help lower latency and improve performance for users.
C. cache frequently changing data without reaching the origin server.
D. refresh data changes daily.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.edureka.co/community/600/what-is-an-edge-location-in-aws

 

QUESTION 2
The AWS Trusted Advisor checks include recommendations regarding which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Information on Amazon S3 bucket permissions
B. AWS service outages
C. Multi-factor authentication enabled on the AWS account root user
D. Available software patches
E. Number of users in the account
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/technology/trusted-advisor/best-practice-checklist/

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could
influence customer\\’s decision? (Choose two.)
A. Reduced latency to users
B. The application\\’s presentation in the local language
C. Data sovereignty compliance
D. Cooling costs in hotter climates
E. Proximity to the customer\\’s office for on-site visits
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which AWS service provides on-demand AWS security and compliance documentation?
A. AWS Directory Service
B. AWS Artifact
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. Amazon Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/artifact/#:~:text=AWS%20Artifact%20is%20your%20go,reports%20and%20select%20online%20agreements

 

QUESTION 5
Which Amazon RDS feature can be used to achieve high availability?
A. Multiple Availability Zones
B. Amazon Reserved Instances
C. Provisioned IOPS storage
D. Enhanced monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS
uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL,
and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon\\’s failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database
Mirroring (DBM).
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html

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Popular Amazon DAS-C01 dumps List

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AWS Certified Data Analytics – Specialty Certification：https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-data-analytics-specialty/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon DAS-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A retail company\\’s data analytics team recently created multiple product sales analysis dashboards for the average
selling price per product using Amazon QuickSight. The dashboards were created from .csv files uploaded to Amazon
S3. The team is now planning to share the dashboards with the respective external product owners by creating
individual users in Amazon QuickSight. For compliance and governance reasons, restricting access is a key
requirement. The product owners should view only their respective product analysis in the dashboard reports.
Which approach should the data analytics team take to allow product owners to view only their products in the
dashboard?
A. Separate the data by product and use S3 bucket policies for authorization.
B. Separate the data by product and use IAM policies for authorization.
C. Create a manifest file with row-level security.
D. Create dataset rules with row-level security.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A large company has a central data lake to run analytics across different departments. Each department uses a
separate AWS account and stores its data in an Amazon S3 bucket in that account. Each AWS account uses the AWS
Glue Data Catalog as its data catalog. There are different data lake access requirements based on roles. Associate
analysts should only have read access to their departmental data. Senior data analysts can have access to multiple
departments including theirs, but for a subset of columns only.
Which solution achieves these required access patterns to minimize costs and administrative tasks?
A. Consolidate all AWS accounts into one account. Create different S3 buckets for each department and move all the
data from every account to the central data lake account. Migrate the individual data catalogs into a central data catalog
and apply fine-grained permissions to give to each user the required access to tables and databases in AWS Glue and
Amazon S3.
B. Keep the account structure and the individual AWS Glue catalogs on each account. Add a central data lake account
and use AWS Glue to catalog data from various accounts. Configure cross-account access for AWS Glue crawlers to
scan the data in each departmental S3 bucket to identify the schema and populate the catalog. Add the senior data
analysts into the central account and apply highly detailed access controls in the Data Catalog and Amazon S3.
C. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake. Use AWS Lake Formation to catalog the cross-account
locations. On each individual S3 bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls to allow senior analysts to view specific
tables and columns.
D. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake and configure a central S3 bucket. Use an AWS Lake
Formation blueprint to move the data from the various buckets into the central S3 bucket. On each individual bucket,
modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation
permissions to add fine-grained access controls for both associate and senior analysts to view specific tables and
columns.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Once a month, a company receives a 100 MB .csv file compressed with gzip. The file contains 50,000 property listing
records and is stored in Amazon S3 Glacier. The company needs its data analyst to query a subset of the data for a
specific vendor.
What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. Load the data into Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon S3 Select.
B. Query the data from Amazon S3 Glacier directly with Amazon Glacier Select.
C. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Athena.
D. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/athena/faqs/

 

QUESTION 4
A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing
the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of
about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data
analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly
reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned
about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution.
Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements?
A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records
from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift
Spectrum to join data that is older than 13 months.
B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with
additional storage capacity.
C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to
quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3.
D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to
crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster
using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the
same AWS Glue Data Catalog.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
A financial company uses Apache Hive on Amazon EMR for ad-hoc queries. Users are complaining of sluggish
performance.
A data analyst notes the following:
Approximately 90% of the queries are submitted 1 hour after the market opens. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
utilization never exceeds 10%.
Which solution would help address the performance issues?
A. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to
scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric.
B. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic
scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric.
C. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to
scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric.
D. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic
scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A company has two ArubaOS switches, Switch1 and Switch2. Switch1 will be the commander for a new Virtual
Switching Framework (VSF) fabric. Switch2 is a new switch that will be the standby member. The network administrator
wants to configure the proper settings on the standby member interface before the standby member joins the fabric.
What should the administrator do before the switches are joined in the VSF fabric?
A. Configure the interface settings on Switch2. Then enable VSF on Switch2.
B. Enable VSF on Switch2. Then configure the interface settings on Switch2.
C. Provision member2 on Switch1. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch1.
D. Provision member2 on Switch1 and member1 on Switch2. Then configure the member2 interface settings on
Switch2.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which standard for wireless connectivity supports both 2.4GHz and 5GHz?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is one benefit that Aruba AirWave can provide to a customer with ArubaOS switches?
A. It can audit switch firmware (software) and automate updates.
B. It can enable the switches to provide mobility controller functions for connected Instant APs (IAPs).
C. It can provide centralized authentication and authorization for users who log in to the switch CLI.
D. It can program the switches to dynamically adjust QoS settings to prioritize Skype for Business traffic.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.google.co.in/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andved=0ahUKEwjKxOe
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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. An issue causes the spanning tree to converge and re-converge again and again.
B. Interface 25 on Switch-1 is incorrectly configured as an STP edge port and cause a loop to occur.
C. Interface 25 on Switch-1 does not support the correct VLANs and prevents the interface from receiving the correct
STP role.
D. Switch-1 and another switch are configured with the same spanning-tree priority and cause the root election to occur
again and again.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator installs a new aggregation and access layer in a campus network. All users in this area belong
to the same VLAN. The administrator plugs the switches into the network with the factory default configurations. Which
protocol must the administrator configure to prevent broadcast storms?
A. MSTP
B. LLDP
C. OSPF
D. LACP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company needs a switch that supports 10GbE and 40GbE for its mid-sized campus. The company prefers stackable
or fixed-port switches over modular switches. Which ArubaOS switch series best meet these needs?
A. Aruba 2530
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 3810
D. Aruba 5400R
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Exhibit 1.

Exhibit 2.

Assume that Switch-2 is correctly configured for OSPF.
Which additional step must the administrator take to enable Switch-1 to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 to Switch-2?
A. Set a router ID on Switch-1.
B. Configure a route to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 on Switch-1.
C. Add Switch-2\\’s router ID to Switch-1\\’s OSPF neighbor list.
D. Enable OSPF on VLAN 2.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Endpoint A sends broadcast ARP requests. Where are these requests received?
A. at EndpointC
B. at EndpointB
C. at EndpointB, at EndpointC, and at EndpointD
D. at EndpointB and at EndpointC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to manage Aruba 3810 Series switches deployed at the campus
access layer. How does AirWave determine which configuration template to apply to these switches?
A. based on their group
B. based on their lowest level subfolder
C. based on their top-level folder
D. based on the global group associated with their group
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
What is a valid setup for a Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric?
A. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member
B. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and two 5406R zl2 switches as standby members
C. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and two 5412R zl2 switches as standby members
D. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator views the configuration files on an ArubaOS switch and sees the output in the exhibit. The
administrator enters this command:
Switch# boot system flash primary config config2 After the switch boots, the administrator makes some configuration
changes and saves the configuration with the write memory command. The administrator then enters this command:
Switch# boot
After the switch boots, the configuration changes just made are not present. How can the administrator restore the
configuration with the changes?
A. Use the boot set-default command to configure the switch to use the secondary software. Then reboot the switch.
B. Reboot the switch and interrupt the boot process. Find the temporary file with the configuration changes and apply
that file to the startup-config.
C. Rename the config2 file to config1. Then reboot the switch.
D. Use the startup-default command to configure the switch to use the config2 file with the primary software. Then
reboot the switch.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
What is a requirement for links to successfully participate in an aggregated link?
A. that links have the spanning tree protocol disabled
B. that links use the same speed and duplex mode
C. that links use the same media type and are untagged
D. that links are untagged and are associated with the same VLAN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which ArubaOS switch feature treats multiple ports as one logical port?
A. OSPF
B. STP
C. VSF
D. link aggregation
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You are creating a logical array on an HPE ProLiant server. The customer asks you to use drives with different
capacities in a single array. What should you explain to this customer?
A. Using drives with different capacities in a single array increases the chance of disk failure
B. The extra capacity of the larger drives will not be utilized
C. The process to create the array will fail, and the server will not boot
D. The RAID level will be set at RAID 0 automatically
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which HPE tool can securely erase the current content of a server and help with the consistent and easy operating system
installation?
A. HPE System Insight Manager
B. HPE Intelligent Management Center (IMC)
C. HPE OneView
D. HPE Intelligent Provisioning
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
You are provisioning a new virtual disk group on an MSA storage system. Which disk group parameters must you specify
when creating the vdisk? (Choose three.)
A. RAID level
B. LUN number
C. type
D. cache size
E. name
F. volume size
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting an HPE ProLiant rack-mount server. You need to collect event data from the server, even when
it is not operational. Which tool should you use?
A. Insight Online
B. InfoSight
C. OS Event Viewer
D. Integrated Management Log
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to know if the storage solution you proposed contains components that are compatible with existing
products currently in the data center. Which HPE resource should you use to provide this information?
A. Storage Size
B. One Config Advanced (OCA)
C. One Config Simple (OCS)
D. Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge (SPOCK)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power
distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space
efficiency?
A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails
B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance
C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front
D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
A customer has implemented an HPE ProLiant server with internal storage and needs to monitor the array health status.
Which management application can the customer use to discover errors quickly and minimize the possible downtime?
A. Insight Online
B. Smart Storage Administrator
C. Intelligent Management Center
D. InfoSight
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A customer needs to improve the throughput performance of iSCSI traffic on their Layer 2 switch. Which feature should the customer implement at the switch level?
A. Jumbo frames
B. Oversubscription
C. SMB Direct
D. Remote Data Memory Access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A customer needs to deploy an application on a newly-installed HPE ProLiant server, but they report that the server is
not online. They call you for remote support. The IP address on the production network cannot be reached. You are
evaluating the probable root causes of this issue. According to the troubleshooting methodology, what are the next two
steps? (Select two)
A. Remote console into the ToR switch to check the server\\’s port configuration.
B. Log in to iLO to see if the server hardware and NIC are online and configured correctly.
C. Use OneView to see f the server firmware is up-to-date
D. Run insight Diagnostics on the Server
E. Use Microsoft Remote Desktop or VNC to check the server\\’s NIC and IP address configuration
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
Why is RAID 6 the best option for a large RAID set for archive storage on large-capacity drives?
A. to reduce risk during volume rebuild
B. to increase write performance on the volume
C. to maximize the capacity of the volume
D. to reduce drive wear
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You are onsite at a customer location to install a new network switch. The customer wants users to be able to manage
the switch through the IP network. How should you connect the switch to the network?
A. Configure multiple user IDs or roles for the console connection
B. Configure the management IP address on the switch and enable Telnet or SSH access
C. Use a dedicated console cable to create a dedicated management network for every user
D. Connect the switch to the network by using the serial cable that ships with the switch
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which HPE Server family is purpose-built for HPC workloads, Big Data Analytics, object storage, and enterprise service
provider needs?
A. HPE ProLiant DL servers
B. HPE Apollo server
C. HPE Synergy servers
D. HPE Edgeline servers
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/apollo-4000.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which industry-standard protocol is typically used to communicate with remote resources on mobile applications?
A. NFS
B. HTTP
C. STP
D. TRILL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: http://ms15.voip.edu.tw/~sandra/paper/CwC.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is considering a refresh of their ToR switches because they need 25 GbE connectivity. Which switch should you recommend?
A. FlexFabric 5945
B. FlexFabric 5940
C. FlexFabric 5980
D. FlexFabric 5710
Correct Answer: A
Explaining: High-density 100GbE/40GbE/25GbE/10GbE spine/top-of-rack (ToR) connectivity Reference:
https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getmobile.aspx?docname=a00049249enw

QUESTION 4
A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?
A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter
B. an installed iLo Advanced license
C. Secure Boot enabled
D. Two-factor authentication enabled
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which HPE tool is used to access 3PAR performance information?
A. NinjaCrawler
B. SAF Collect
C. SAF Analyze
D. NinjaStars
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A customer is running a virtualized application with the data stored on their server\\’s local storage. As the storage
space is getting full, they are looking into a new storage system. Their IT generalist would like to use a single
management interface for the new solution.
Which solution should you recommend to the customer?
A. HPE Nimble HF20
B. HPE MSA 2052
C. HPE SimpliVity 380
D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A customer has expressed concerns about the security of using RESTful API to do a survey against their existing
infrastructure. What should you say about the REST client to alleviate the customer\\’s concerns?
A. It uses SNMP v2.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It uses SNMP v3.
D. It uses WBEM.
Correct Answer: C
It defines the User-based Security Model (USM), providing for both Authenticated and Private (encrypted) SNMP
messages Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3584

 

QUESTION 8
A customer is requesting new leaf switches for their 40-server virtualization farm. Their servers are currently equipped
with 25GbE NICs. Which switch family should you recommend?
A. HPE FlexFabric 5710 24SFP+ 6S+
B. HPE FlexFabric 12916E Switch with QSFP28 HB modules
C. HPE FlexFabric 5945 48SFP28 8QSFP28
D. HPE FlexFabric 5710 48XGT 2QSF28
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/networking/networking-switches/hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series/p/1010907030

 

QUESTION 9
HPE OneView can be used to provision volumes on which HPE solutions? (Choose two.)
A. HPE Nimble
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE XP
D. HPE SimpliVity
E. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
Correct Answer: AE
HPE OneView automation provisions storage volumes, zones the fiber channel SAN and attaches 3PAR StoreServ
storage to the server profile. Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/getpdf.aspx/4AA4-8543ENW.pdf
https://www.karma-group.ru/upload/iblock/255/HPE%20OneView.pdf

QUESTION 10
A customer is considering purchasing an application that requires a highly-available NUMA platform that will scale up to
16 processors. They ask you which HPE compute solution will meet their needs. Which solution should you
recommend?
A. HPE BladeSystem
B. HPE ProLiant DL
C. HPE Synergy
D. HPE Superdome Flex
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na-a00041133en_us

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
During Synergy solution onboarding, the customer asks about a firmware overview of all the computing modules at once.
Click where you can access the information.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
During an HPE SimpliVity solution presentation, a potential customer asks about the HPE SimpliVity RapidDR option in
the Bill of Material. How should you respond?
A. It allows configuring a high-availability solution between two sites for automatic failover and fallback in disaster
recovery situations.
B. It is required for a multi-site HPE SimpliVity configuration to send VM backups to remote clusters.
C. It enables orchestration for site-to-site recovery to improve application availability during planned or unplanned
events.
D. It is a requirement to guarantee the 1-minute restore of a 1TB virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D
HPE guarantees the ability to restore a 1TB VM within one minute, meaning that the customer saved approx. 70% of
time Reference: https://veracompadria.com/en/simplivity-demystified/

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in
two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their
management network. How should you reply?
A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects to their management
network with two uplinks.
B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect to their management
network.
C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\\’s workload is not supported.
D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their
management network.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Packet Filtering Firewalls can also enable access for:
A. only authorized application port or service numbers.
B. only unauthorized application port or service numbers.
C. only authorized application port or ex-service numbers.
D. only authorized application port or service integers.
Correct Answer: A

Firewall rules can be used to enable access for traffic to specific ports or services. “Service numbers” is rather stilted
English but you may encounter these types of wordings on the actual exam — don\\’t let them confuse you.
“Only unauthorized application port or service numbers” is incorrect. Unauthorized ports/services would be blocked in a
properly installed a firewall rather than permitting access.
“Only authorized application port or ex-service numbers” is incorrect. “Ex-service” numbers is a nonsense term meant to
distract you.
“Only authorized application port or service integers.” While service numbers are in fact integers, the more usual (and
therefore better) the answer is either service or “service number.”
References
CBK, p. 464
AIO3, pp. 482 484

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of a connectionless communication protocol?
A. UDP
B. X.25
C. Packet switching
D. TCP
Correct Answer: A

UDP is an example of a connectionless communication protocol, wherein no connection needs to be established before
data can be exchanged.
In telecommunications, connectionless describes communication between two network endpoints in which a message
can be sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement. The device at one end of the communication
transmits data addressed to the other, without first ensuring that the recipient is available and ready to receive the data.
Some protocols allow for error correction by requested retransmission. Internet Protocol (IP) and User Datagram
Protocol
(UDP) are connectionless protocols.
Connectionless protocols are also described as stateless because the endpoints have no protocol- defined way to
remember where they are in a “conversation” of message exchanges.
List of connectionless protocols
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
IP
UDP
ICMP
IPX
TIPC
NetBEUI
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 86).
and
https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Connectionless_protocol

 

QUESTION 3
Related to information security, the guarantee that the message sent is the message received with the assurance that
the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered is an example of which of the following?
A. integrity
B. confidentiality
C. availability
D. identity
Correct Answer: A

Integrity is the guarantee that the message sent is the message received, and that the message was not intentionally or
unintentionally altered.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 60.

QUESTION 4
Which backup method copies only files that have changed since the last full backup, but does not clear the archive bit?
A. Differential backup method.
B. Full backup method.
C. Incremental backup method.
D. Tape backup method.
Correct Answer: A

One of the key items to understand regarding backup is the archive bit. The archive bit is used to determine what files
have been backuped already. The archive bit is set if a file is modified or a new file is created, this indicates to the
backup program that it has to be saved on the next backup. When a full backup is performed the archive bit will be
cleared indicating that the files were backup. This allows backup programs to do an incremental or differential backup
that only backs up the changes to the filesystem since the last time the bit was cleared
Full Backup (or Reference Backup)
A Full backup will backup all the files and folders on the drive every time you run the full backup. The archive bit is
cleared on all files indicating they were all backuped.
Advantages:
All files from the selected drives and folders are backed up to one backup set.
In the event you need to restore files, they are easily restored from the single backup set.
Disadvantages:
A full backup is more time consuming than other backup options.
Full backups require more disk, tape, or network drive space.
Incremental Backup An incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new since the last incremental backup.
For the first incremental backup, all files in the file set are backed up (just as in a full backup). If you use the same file set to perform an incremental backup later, only the files that have changed are backed up. If you use the same file set for a third backup, only the files that have changed since the second backup are backed up, and so on.
Incremental backup will clear the archive bit.
Advantages:
Backup time is faster than full backups.
Incremental backups require less disk, tape, or network drive space.
You can keep several versions of the same files on different backup sets.
Disadvantages:
In order to restore all the files, you must have all of the incremental backups available.
It may take longer to restore a specific file since you must search more than one backup set to find the latest version of
a file. Differential Backup
A differential backup provides a backup of files that have changed since a full backup was performed. A differential
backup typically saves only the files that are different or new since the last full backup. Together, a full backup and a
differential backup include all the files on your computer, changed and unchanged.
Differential backup does not clear the archive bits.
Advantages:
Differential backups require even less disk, tape, or network drive space than incremental backups.
Backup time is faster than full or incremental backups.
Disadvantages:
Restoring all your files may take considerably longer since you may have to restore both the last differential and full
backup.
Restoring an individual file may take longer since you have to locate the file on either the differential or full backup.
For more info see: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/136621
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 69.

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
A. Incremental backup method
B. Off-site backup method
C. Full backup method
D. Differential backup method
Correct Answer: C

The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is
needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 69).

QUESTION 6
What is RAD?
A. A development methodology
B. A project management technique
C. A measure of system complexity
D. Risk-assessment diagramming
Correct Answer: A

RAD stands for Rapid Application Development.
RAD is a methodology that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and maintaining quality.
RAD is a programming system that enables programmers to quickly build working programs. In general, RAD systems provide a number of tools to help build graphical user interfaces that would normally take a
large development effort.
Two of the most popular RAD systems for Windows are Visual Basic and Delphi. Historically, RAD systems have tended
to emphasize reducing development time, sometimes at the expense of generating in-efficient executable code.
Nowadays, though, many RAD systems produce extremely faster code that is optimized. Conversely, many traditional programming environments now come with a number of visual tools to aid development.
Therefore, the line between RAD systems and other development environments has become blurred.
Reference:
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter
6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 307)
http://www.webopedia.com

 

QUESTION 7
What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?
A. passphrase
B. cognitive phrase
C. anticipated phrase
D. Real phrase
Correct Answer: A

A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 37.

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the
corporate network over analog lines?
A. TACACS
B. Call-back
C. CHAP
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B

Call-back allows for a distant user connecting into a system to be called back at a number already listed in a database
of trusted users. The disadvantage of this system is that the user must be at a fixed location whose phone number is
known to the authentication server. Being mobile workers, users are accessing the system from multiple locations,
making call-back inappropriate for them.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 44).

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?
A. People
B. Software
C. Communications
D. Hardware
Correct Answer: A

The Answer: People. The other choices can be strengthened and counted on (For the most part) to remain consistent if
properly protected. People are fallible and unpredictable. Most security intrusions are caused by employees. People get
tired, careless, and greedy. They are not always reliable and may falter in following defined guidelines and best
practices. Security professionals must install adequate prevention and detection controls and properly train all systems
users Proper hiring and firing practices can eliminate certain risks. Security Awareness training is key to ensuring
people are aware of risks and their responsibilities.
The following answers are incorrect: Software. Although software exploits are a major threat and cause concern,
people are the weakest point in a security posture. The software can be removed, upgraded, or patched to reduce risk.
Communications. Although many attacks from inside and outside an organization use communication methods such as
the network infrastructure, this is not the weakest point in a security posture. Communications can be monitored,
devices installed, or upgraded to reduce risk and react to attack attempts. Hardware. Hardware components can be a
weakness in a security posture, but they are not the weakest link of the choices provided. Access to hardware can be
minimized by such measures as installing locks and monitoring access in and out of certain areas.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v.3 P.19, 107-109
ISC2 OIG 2007, p.51-55

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the most reliable, secure means of removing data from magnetic storage media such as a
magnetic tape, or a cassette?
A. Degaussing
B. Parity Bit Manipulation
C. Zeroization
D. Buffer overflow
Correct Answer: A

A “Degausser (Otherwise known as a Bulk Eraser) has the main function of reducing to near zero the magnetic flux
stored in the magnetized medium. Flux density is measured in Gauss or Tesla. The operation is speedier than
overwriting and done in one short operation. This is achieved by subjecting the subject in bulk to a series of fields of
alternating polarity and gradually decreasing strength.
The following answers are incorrect: Parity Bit Manipulation. Parity has to do with disk error detection, not data removal.
A bit or series of bits appended to a character or block of characters to ensure that the information received is the same
as the information that was sent.
Zeroization. Zeroization involves overwriting data to sanitize it. It is time-consuming and not foolproof. The potential for
restoration of data does exist with this method. Buffer overflow. This is a detractor. Although many Operating Systems
use a disk buffer to temporarily hold data read from disk, its primary purpose has no connection to data removal. An
overflow goes outside the constraints defined for the buffer and is a method used by an attacker to attempt access to a system. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v3. pg 908 Reference: What is degaussing.

 

QUESTION 11
What level of assurance for a digital certificate verifies a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other
information against a credit bureau database?
A. Level 1/Class 1
B. Level 2/Class 2
C. Level 3/Class 3
D. Level 4/Class 4
Correct Answer: B

Users can obtain certificates with various levels of assurance. Here is a list that describes each of them:
–
Class 1/Level 1 for individuals, intended for email, no proof of identity
For example, level 1 certificates verify electronic mail addresses. This is done through the use of a personal information
number that a user would supply when asked to register. This level of the certificate may also provide a name as well as an
electronic mail address; however, it may or may not be a genuine name (i.e., it could be an alias). This proves that a
human being will reply back if you send an email to that name or email address.
–
Class 2/Level 2 is for organizations and companies for which proof of identity is required
Level 2 certificates verify a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other information against a credit bureau
database.
– Class 3/Level 3 is for servers and software signing, for which independent verification and checking of identity and
authority is done by the issuing certificate authority
Level 3 certificates are available to companies. This level of the certificate provides photo identification to accompany the
other items of information provided by a level 2 certificate.
–
Class 4 for online business transactions between companies
–
Class 5 for private organizations or governmental security References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_certificate VeriSign introduced the concept of classes of digital certificates:
Also, see:
Source: TIPTON, Harold F., and KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1),
2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3, Secured Connections to External Networks (page 54).

 

QUESTION 12
What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?
A. They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.
B. They have nothing in common.
C. They are both masquerading attacks.
D. They are both social engineering attacks.
Correct Answer: C

While a masquerading attack can be considered a type of social engineering, the Melissa and ILOVEYOU viruses are
examples of masquerading attacks, even if it may cause some kind of denial of service due to the webserver being
flooded with messages. In this case, the receiver confidently opens a message coming from a trusted individual, only to
find that the message was sent using the trusted party\\’s identity. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP
Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter
10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 650).

 

QUESTION 13
What is electronic vaulting?
A. Information is backed up to tape on an hourly basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
B. Information is backed up to tape on a daily basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
C. Transferring electronic journals or transaction logs to an off-site storage facility
D. A transfer of bulk information to a remote central backup facility.
Correct Answer: D

Electronic vaulting is defined as “a method of transferring bulk information to off-site facilities for backup purposes”.
Remote Journaling is the same concept as electronic vaulting but has to do with journals and transaction logs, not the
actual files. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter
9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 619).

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QUESTION 1
Which server sits in the DMZ and allows external devices to connect to the Horizon Mirage service?
A. Mirage Server
B. Mirage Branch Reflector
C. Mirage Management Server
D. Mirage Gateway Server
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/consulting/tag/horizon-mirage

 

QUESTION 2
Which vSphere component is used to manage multiple hosts in a cluster?
A. ESXI
B. vDS
C. vCenter Server
D. VUM
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
At which layer does VMware vSAN provide redundancy for Virtual Machine (VM) files?
A. At host storage controller (RAID) only.
B. In VMware vSAN only.
C. In VMware vSAN and virtual machine (VM) storage policies.
D. At host storage controller (RAID) and VMware vSAN.
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/4.0/com.vmware.vvd.sddcdesign.doc/GUID-6F009138-C06B-4CF0-89A4-9FFECA22F7FE.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails?
A. vSphere Data Protection
B. High Availability
C. Fault Tolerance
D. vSphere Replication
Correct Answer: C
In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for
applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up
to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring
zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates
downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary
VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
In which form does Virtual SAN store and manage data?
A. Files
B. Disks
C. Objects
D. Blocks
Correct Answer: C
Virtual SAN stores and manages data in the form of flexible data containers called objects. An object is a logical volume
that has its data and metadata distributed and accessed across the entire cluster. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-2B3B720F-0A7E-4B4B-883F-85A39C1A6C5A.html

 

QUESTION 6
A company wants to implement a software-defined network solution with minimal impact on the existing environment.
What additional hardware, if any, is required when implementing VMware NSX?
A. A stateful inspection Firewall to take advantage of NSX\\’s built-in Firewall protection
B. None. NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution.
C. Special VLAN configurations for accessing NSX.
D. At least two Layer 3 switches that must be converted to trunk mode.
Correct Answer: B
NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution which can be deployed on any IP network from any vendor ? both existing
traditional networking models and next-generation fabric architectures. The physical network infrastructure already in
place is all that is required to deploy a software-defined data center with NSX.
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmw-nsx-networkvirtualization-design-guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A large bank wants to automate their infrastructure provisioning. They need a portal that provides the ability to check
the health of a virtual machine and perform day-two actions, such as power-on and power-off.
Which product in the vRealize Suite offers this functionality?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Automation
D. vRealize Business
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which component in VMware NSX provides L2 bridging from the logical networking space VXLAN to the physical
space?
A. NSX virtual switch
B. Logical Router control VM
C. Logical router
D. NSX Edge virtual appliance
Correct Answer: C
The logical routers can provide L2 bridging from the logical networking space (VXLAN) to the physical network (VLAN).
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-for-vSphere/6.3/nsx_63_admin.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them.
B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing.
C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads.
D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud.
E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing.
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html

 

QUESTION 10
A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials
multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign-On (SSO)?
A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016
B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System
C. Only Horizon 7 is required
D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture are true? (Choose two.)
A. Deployment of services across clouds is manual.
B. Works only on certain underlying clouds or hypervisors.
C. Provides the ability to run, manage, connect, and secure applications across clouds.
D. Provides cloud freedom, but not control.
E. Provides the freedom to innovate across both private clouds and public clouds.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12
VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license
VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite
editions? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Plus
B. Foundations
C. Advanced
D. Enterprise
E. Professional
F. Standard
Correct Answer: CDF
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html

 

QUESTION 13
What are the three vRealize Suite editions offered by VMware?
A. Standard, Advanced, Enterprise
B. Standard, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus
C. Foundation, Standard, Enterprise
D. Advanced, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus
Correct Answer: A
VMware vRealize Suite cloud management platform is available in three editions: Standard, Advanced, and Enterprise.
New portable licensing allows customers to manage multi-vendor private and public clouds with common licensing.
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html

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Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Examine the description of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:

Examine this partial SQL statement:
SELECT * FROM books_transactions
Which two WHERE conditions give the same result?
A. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’));
B. WHERE (borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’) OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’);
C. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND (member_id = A101\\’ OR member_id =
`A102\\’));
D. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’);
E. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND member_id = `A101\\’ OR member_id =
`A102\\’);
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.)
A. The ORDER BY Clause can be used in a subquery.
B. A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement.
C. If a subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return rows.
D. A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, a GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause.
E. Logical operators, such as AND, OR, and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true reading subqueries? (Choose three.)
A. A-Main query can have many subqueries.
B. A subquery can have more than one main query.
C. The subquery and the main query must retrieve the date from the same table.
D. The subquery and main query can retrieve data from different tables.
E. Only one column or expression can be compared between the subquery and main query.
F. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the subquery and main query.
Correct Answer: ADF

 

QUESTION 4
A non-correlated subquery can be defined as __________. (Choose the best answer.)
A. A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in
the outer query.
B. A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table.
C. A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value.
D. A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table:
SQL > DROP TABLE products;
Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.)
A. All data along with the table structure is deleted.
B. A pending transaction in the session is committed.
C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated.
D. All views and synonyms on the table remain but they are invalidated.
E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the two tables.

Which two queries execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about a full outer join?
A. It includes rows that are returned by an inner join.
B. It returns only unmatched rows from both tables being joined.
C. It includes rows that are returned by a Cartesian product.
D. It returns matched and unmatched rows from both tables being joined.
E. The Oracle joins operator (+) must be used on both sides of the join condition in the WHERE clause.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.w3resource.com/oracle/joins/oracle-full-outer-join.php

 

QUESTION 9
The SQL statements executed in a user session are as follows:

Which two statements describe the consequences of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT a command in the
session? (Choose two.)
A. The rollback generates an error.
B. No SQL statements are rolled back.
C. Only the DELETE statements are rolled back.
D. Only the second DELETE statement is rolled back.
E. Both the DELETE statements and the UPDATE statement are rolled back.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:

Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives the wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives the wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table:

Which query retrieves the number of products with a full list price?
A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price = NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-aggregate-functions/oracle-avg/

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.)
A. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the
session\\’s temporary tablespace.
B. It enables sessions to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement if it occurs more than once in a complex
query.
C. It enables sessions to store a query block permanently in memory and use it to create complex queries.
D. It enables sessions to store the results of a query permanently.
Correct Answer: AB

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Latest Updates CompTIA n10-007 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

169.254.0.100 is an IP address that would MOST likely come from which of the following?
A. CIDR
B. DHCP
C. APIPA
D. DNS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which of the following technologies is required to allow all ports of a single private IP to be publically accessible via a
single public IP?
A. NAT
B. RIP
C. PAT
D. ACL

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices
would allow for communication between the segments?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Bridge
D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A bookstore uses a Faraday cage to comply with credit card regulations. Customers report that their cellular phones
have no signal when they are in the bookstore. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The Faraday cage is creating interference within the bookstore.
B. The Faraday cage prevents access by redirecting signals.
C. The Faraday cage is creating latency on the cellular network.
D. The Faraday cage is creating attenuation of the cellular network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Jeff, a user, is having a problem with a POTS line. Which of the following tools would Jeff use to make sure the phone
lines have a dial tone?
A. Loopback plugs
B. Butt set
C. Cable certifier
D. Toner probe

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Which of the following WAP security features offers the STRONGEST encryption?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. Hidden SSID

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A Windows server has a problem after booting up. Kim, a technician, should immediately check the:
A. history logs.
B. cron logs.
C. application logs.
D. system logs.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A user reports difficulties connecting a PC to a wired network. The PC connects to an IP phone, which is working
correctly. A network technician can verify that other devices successfully connect to the phone. At which of the following
layers of the OSI model is the problem MOST likely located?
A. Network
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Application

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP
offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following
utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company
data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company?
A. An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential
B. An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters
C. Consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone
D. Real-time remote monitoring of the phone\’s activity and usage

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A DSL modem connects to the provider\’s network using which of the following authentication techniques?
A. PoE
B. MS-CHAP
C. PPPoE
D. EAP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network
running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.)
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Wireless controller
D. RADIUS server
E. Multilayer switch

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13

Kim, the client, has requested a cost-effective network solution to accommodate the ability to reconfigure the office
space as needed. Which networking solution would provide the BEST solution?
A. Private IP Addressing
B. Wireless Access Points
C. Wide Area Networking
D. Virtual Local Area Networks

Correct Answer: B

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Latest Updates CompTIA 220-1002 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

A user has installed a legacy application in Windows 7 and reports that only some of the functionality in it is operational.
Another user is using the same application on a different Windows 7 machine and doesn\’t report those problems.
Which of the following features in Windows 7 may be responsible for this problem?
A. System Protection settings
B. User Account Control
C. Action Center
D. Data Execution Prevention

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/user-account- control

QUESTION 2

A user Is unable to access a network share out can access email. A technician has confirmed the user has the
appropriate permissions to access the share. Which of the following commands should the technician use FIRST?
A. ping
B. nslooking
C. net use
D. ipconfig

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\’s WPA2 security

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A user who is running Windows XP calls a technician to upgrade the computer to a newer Windows OS. The user states
the computer has only 1GB of RAM and 16GB of hard drive space with a 1,7GHz processor. Which of the following OSs
should the technician recommended to ensure the BEST performance on this computer?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

A Linux user report that an application will not open and gives the error only one instance of the application may run at
one time. A root administrator logs on ot the device and opens terminal. Which of the following pairs of tools will be
needed to ensure no other instance of the software are correctly running?
A. Pad and chmod
B. Node and vi
C. Is an chown
D. Ps and kill
E. Op and rm

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system
because some program or service has locked some of the virus\’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the
system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to
the system?
A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs.
B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode.
C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts.
D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician has replaced several corporate human resources computers and is asked to ensure the information on the
drives cannot be retrieved. Which of the following destruction methods would BEST ensure this data is irretrievable?
A. Overwriting
B. Formatting
C. Shredding
D. Drive wiping

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which of the following would a technician use to store memory chips from a laptop safely after an upgrade?
A. Mylar bags
B. Cardboard boxes
C. Antistatic containers
D. Paper envelopes

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

A user\’s corporate email is missing the shared inbox folders that were present before the user went on vacation. The
technician verifies the user is connected to the domain and can still send and receive email. Which of the following is
MOST likely causing the missing folders issue?
A. The Internet security options have changed
B. The operating system updates have changed
C. The network directory permissions have changed
D. The user account permissions have changed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

A technician receives an end user\’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts
the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect
the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT?
A. Roll back the NIC driver
B. Update and install anti-malware software
C. Configure and enable the email spam filters
D. Verify the security certificate is valid
E. Perform a full system backup

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A technician logs on to a Linux computer and runs the following command:
ps -aux | grep vi
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the effect of the command?
A. It kills any running programs starting with the letters vi.
B. It opens a list of directories that start with the letters vi.
C. It creates a new file named grep in the current working directory.
D. If finds a list of processes running a text editor.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A
technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician
do?
A. Enable Windows automatic updates
B. Enable screensaver required passwords
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Enable wireless encryption

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows-vista/use-your-windows-password- for-your- screen-saverpassword

QUESTION 13

A technician is cleaning up a warehouse and has several old CRT monitors and UPS units. The technician removes the
batteries from the UPSs and wants to comply with proper disposal techniques. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT to proceed with disposal of the batteries?
A. Place securely in trash receptacles.
B. Refer to the manufacturer\’s specific usage.
C. Review the material safety data sheet.
D. Conduct an Internet search of disposal techniques.

Correct Answer: C

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Table of Contents:

• Latest Microsoft other Certification MD-100 google drive
• Effective Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions
• Related MD-100 Popular Exam resources
• Lead4Pass Year-round Discount Code
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Latest Microsoft other Certification MD-100 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft other Certification MD-100 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1iawkwFKMZK6pwqdi7lw3THZhJaVyUXRa

Exam MD-100: Windows 10 – Learn | Microsoft Docs：https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/md-100

If you passed Exam 70-698 before it expired on March 31, 2019, you only need to take MD-101 to earn the Modern Desktop certification. Candidates for this exam are Administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.

As an Administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.

Skills measured

• Deploy Windows (15-20%)
• Manage devices and data (35-40%)
• Configure connectivity (15-20%)
• Maintain Windows (25-30%)

Latest updates Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company.
You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver.
You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From an elevated command prompt, you run the wusa.exe command and specify the /uninstall parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to monitor update deployments. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows Server Update (WSUS)
B. the Update Management solution in Azure Automation
C. the Update Compliance solution in Azure Log Analytics
D. the Azure Security Center
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/update-compliance-monitor

QUESTION 3
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform.
In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops.
Some laptops frequently generate stop errors.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you use?
A. Reliability Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the quality update requirement for ComputerA. For how long should you defer the updates?
A. 14 days
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 180 days
E. 30 days
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do?
A. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain.
B. Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain.
C. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2.
D. And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials.
Which settings should you modify?
A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups
B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel
C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor
D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-account-control-security-policy-settings

QUESTION 7
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD).
The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates.
You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The configuration must be managed from a central location.
Internet traffic must be minimized.
Costs must be minimized.
How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do?
A. Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10.
B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy
Computer10.
C. From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10.
D. Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and has an application named App1.
You need to use Performance Monitor to collect data about the processor utilization of App1.
Which performance object should you monitor?
A. Process
B. Processor Performance
C. Processor Information
D. Processor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.cse.wustl.edu/~jain/cse567-06/ftp/os_monitors/index.html

QUESTION 10
Your company has an isolated network used for testing. The network contains 20 computers that run Windows 10. The
computers are in a workgroup. During testing, the computers must remain in the workgroup.
You discover that none of the computers are activated.
You need to recommend a solution to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT)
B. Key Management Service (KMS)
C. Active Directory-based activation
D. the Get-WindowsDeveloperLicense cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/volume-activation/activate-using-key-management-service-vamt

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do?
A. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
B. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
C. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
D. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate Question Set 3

QUESTION 12
You need to sign in as LocalAdmin on Computer11. What should you do first?
A. From the LAPS UI tool, view the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11.
B. From Local Security Policy, edit the policy password settings on Computer11.
C. From the LAPS UI tool, reset the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11.
D. From Microsoft Intune, edit the policy password settings on Computer11.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/mt227395.aspx

QUESTION 13
You need to meet the technical requirements for the helpdesk users.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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