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QUESTION 1 Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP\\’s external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results? A. The active system will note the failure in the HA table. B. The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode. C. The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode. D. The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for the network failure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.) A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ServerSSL Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license? A. the system\\’s dossier B. the system\\’s host name C. the system\\’s base license D. the system\\’s purchase order number Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Where is persistence mirroring configured? A. It is always enabled. B. It is part of a pool definition. C. It is part of a profile definition. D. It is part of a virtual server definition. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member? A. 200.200.1.1 B. 150.150.10.11 C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use. A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors. B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance. C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust. D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Where is the loadbalancing mode specified? A. within the pool definition B. within the node definition C. within the virtual server definition D. within the pool member definition Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected? A. As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur. B. Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten seconds. C. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode. D. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will maintain active mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients using some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client\\’s IP address, but on the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal? A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select pools. B. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved. C. For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT pools could vary dependent upon need. D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client\\’s address (or network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which statement is true regarding failover? A. Hardware failover is disabled by default. B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover. C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role. D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.) A. Monitors are performed only by the active system. B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system. C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system. D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system. E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. The pool is marked available. If a pool is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this? A. All of the pool member nodes are responding to the ICMP monitor as expected. B. Less than 50% of the pool member nodes responded to the ICMP echo request. C. All of the members of the pool have had their content updated recently and their responses no longer match the monitor. D. Over 25% of the pool members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the custom monitor. The other respond as expected. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 If a client\\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence? A. The connection request is not processed. B. The connection request is sent to a pology server. C. The connection request is loadbalanced to an available pool member. D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Henry Home Furnishings has built high-end furniture for nearly forty years. However, the new owner, Anton, has found some degree of disorganization after touring the company headquarters. His uncle Henry has always focused on production ? not data processing ? and Anton is concerned. In several storage rooms, he has found paper files, disks, and old computers that appear to contain the personal data of current and former employees and customers. Anton knows that a single break-in could irrevocably damage the company\\’s relationship with its loyal customers. He intends to set a goal of guaranteed zero loss of personal information. To this end, Anton originally planned to place restrictions on who was admitted to the physical premises of the company. However, Kenneth? his uncle\\’s vice president and longtime confidante? wants to hold off on Anton\\’s idea in favor of converting any paper records held at the company to electronic storage. Kenneth believes this process would only take one or two years. Anton likes this idea; he envisions a password-protected system that only he and Kenneth can access. Anton also plans to divest the company of most of its subsidiaries. Not only will this make his job easier, but it will simplify the management of the stored data. The heads of subsidiaries like the art gallery and kitchenware store down the street will be responsible for their own information management. Then, any unneeded subsidiary data still in Anton\\’s possession can be destroyed within the next few years. After learning of a recent security incident, Anton realizes that another crucial step will be notifying customers. Kenneth insists that the two lost hard drives in question are not cause for concern; all of the data was encrypted and not sensitive in nature. Anton does not want to take any chances, however. He intends on sending notice letters to all employees and customers to be safe. Anton must also check for compliance with all legislative, regulatory, and market requirements related to privacy protection. Kenneth oversaw the development of the company\\’s online presence about ten years ago, but Anton is not confident about his understanding of recent online marketing laws. Anton is assigning another trusted employee with a law background the task of the compliance assessment. After a thorough analysis, Anton knows the company should be safe for another five years, at which time he can order another check. Documentation of this analysis will show auditors’ due diligence. Anton has started down a long road toward improved management of the company, but he knows the effort is worth it. Anton wants his uncle\\’s legacy to continue for many years to come. In terms of compliance with regulatory and legislative changes, Anton has a misconception regarding? A. The timeline for monitoring B. The method of recordkeeping C. The use of internal employees D. The type of required qualifications Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements? A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties B. Look for overlaps in-laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations and inform stakeholders why they are applicable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as competitors was quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down. Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Mediaite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Mediaite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Mediaite to have absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost-effective.” You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps. You give a presentation to your CEO about privacy program maturity. What does it mean to have a “managed” privacy program, according to the AICPA/CICA Privacy Maturity Model? A. Procedures or processes exist, however they are not fully documented and do not cover all relevant aspects. B. Procedures and processes are fully documented and implemented and cover all relevant aspects. C. Reviews are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the controls in place. D. Regular review and feedback are used to ensure continuous improvement toward optimization of the given process. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://vvena.nl/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/aicpa_cica_privacy_maturity_model.pdf (page 2, 4th point under privacy maturity model)
QUESTION 4 Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which of the following situations would LEAST likely require a controller to notify a data subject? A. An encrypted USB key with sensitive personal data is stolen B. A direct marketing email is sent with recipients visible in the `cc\\’ field C. Personal data of a group of individuals are erroneously sent to the wrong mailing list D. A hacker publishes usernames, phone numbers, and purchase history online after a cyber-attack Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the notification, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. Informing the affected individuals that data from other individuals may have also been affected. B. Collecting more personally identifiable information than necessary to provide updates to the affected individuals. C. Using a postcard with the logo of the vendor who make the mistake instead of your company\\’s logo. D. Trusting a vendor to send out a notice when they already failed once by not encrypting the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development. You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear understanding of the need for change. Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place. Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective. You are left contemplating: What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention program? How can you build on your success? What are the next action steps? What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program being developed at Consolidated? A. Privacy by Design B. Privacy Step Assessment C. Information Security Planning D. Innovation Privacy Standards Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 What is the main purpose in notifying data subjects of a data breach? A. To avoid financial penalties and legal liability B. To enable regulators to understand trends and developments that may shape the law C. To ensure organizations have accountability for the sufficiency of their security measures D. To allow individuals to take any actions required to protect themselves from possible consequences Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How would a strong data life cycle management policy have helped prevent the breach? A. Information would have been ranked according to the importance and stored in separate locations B. The most sensitive information would have been immediately erased and destroyed C. The most important information would have been regularly assessed and tested for security D. Information would have been categorized and assigned a deadline for destruction Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which was delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How was Pacific Suites responsible for protecting the sensitive information of its offshoot, PHT? A. As the parent company, it should have transferred personnel to oversee the secure handling of PHT\\’s data. B. As the parent company, it should have performed an assessment of PHT\\’s infrastructure and confirmed complete separation of the two networks. C. As the parent company, it should have ensured its existing data access and storage procedures were integrated into PHT\\’s system. D. As the parent company, it should have replaced PHT\\’s electronic files with hard-copy documents stored securely on site. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which term describes a piece of personal data that alone may not identify an individual? A. Unbundled data B. A singularity C. Non-aggregated info point D. A single attribute Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. What key mistake set the company up to be vulnerable to a security breach? A. Collecting too much information and keeping it for too long B. Overlooking the need to organize and categorize data C. Failing to outsource training and data management to professionals D. Neglecting to make a backup copy of archived electronic files Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Your organization, the Chicago (U.S.)-based Society for Urban Greenspace, has used the same vendor to operate all aspects of an online store for several years. As a small nonprofit, the Society cannot afford the higher-priced options, but you have been relatively satisfied with this budget vendor, Shopping Cart Saver (SCS). Yes, there have been some issues. Twice, people who purchased items from the store have had their credit card information used fraudulently subsequent to transactions on your site, but in neither case did the investigation reveal with certainty that the Society\\’s store had been hacked. The thefts could have been employee-related. Just as disconcerting was an incident where the organization discovered that SCS had sold information it had collected from customers to third parties. However, as Jason Roland, your SCS account representative, points out, it took only a phone call from you to clarify expectations and the “misunderstanding” has not occurred again. As an information-technology program manager with the Society, the role of the privacy professional is only one of many you play. In all matters, however, you must consider the financial bottom line. While these problems with privacy protection have been significant, the additional revenues of sales of items such as shirts and coffee cups from the store have been significant. The Society\\’s operating budget is slim, and all sources of revenue are essential. Now a new challenge has arisen. Jason called to say that starting in two weeks, the customer data from the store would now be stored on a data cloud. “The good news,” he says, “is that we have found a low-cost provider in Finland, where the data would also be held. So, while there may be a small charge to pass through to you, it won\\’t be exorbitant, especially considering the advantages of a cloud.” Lately, you have been hearing about cloud computing and you know it\\’s fast becoming the new paradigm for various applications. However, you have heard mixed reviews about the potential impacts on privacy protection. You begin to research and discover that a number of the leading cloud service providers have signed a letter of intent to work together on shared conventions and technologies for privacy protection. You make a note to find out if Jason\\’s Finnish provider is signing on. After conducting research, you discover a primary data protection issue with cloud computing. Which of the following should be your biggest concern? A. An open programming model that results in easy access B. An unwillingness of cloud providers to provide security information C. A lack of vendors in the cloud computing market D. A reduced resilience of data structures that may lead to data loss. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which third-party management software can not integrate Huawei server now? A. HPOpenView B. HPOneView C. Nagios 4.x D. vCenter6.0 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Huawei E9000 server supports mixed insertion of blades. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which functions are iBMC\\’s specification of remote management ? (Multiple Choice) A. Virtual KVM B. SOL(Serial over LAN) C. Virtual Media D. redfish API Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Which types of storage can the G560 support? (Multiple Choice) A. 2.5″ NVMe SSD B. 3.5″ HDD C. 2.5H HDD/SSD D. M.2 SSD Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 Server node types of Huawei X6800 are: (Multiple Choice) A. GPU node B. Compute node C. Compute-storage balancing node D. Storage node Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6 Which Intel processor does Huawei X6800 XH622 V3 support? A. E5-2600v2 B. E5-2600v4 C. E5-4600 D. E3-1200v2 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which application scenario is the G530 V2 with 16 x P4 typically used for? A. AI Training B. AI Inference C. HPC D. All of them Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Huawei RH1288 V3 is a 1U rack server. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which servers does HUAWEI NVMe SSD support? (Multiple Choice) A. RH1288 V3 B. HP DL380 C. RH8100 D. Dell R630 Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 10 What is the maximum number of NVMe SSDs supported by Huawei 2288H V5? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 28 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Huawei E9000 uses the passive midplane that has no active components such as a resistor or IC. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which components does iBMC monitor? (Multiple Choice) A. PSU B. PCIe C. CPU D. Fan module Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13 The Huawei X6000 high-density server supports 24 NVMe SSDs in each chassis. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
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[2020.11] Popular Amazon ANS-C00 exam practice questions(1-5)
QUESTION 1 Your organization requires strict adherence to a change control process for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) and VPC environments. The organization uses AWS CloudFormation as the AWS service to control and implement changes. Which combination of three services provides an alert for changes made outside of AWS CloudFormation? (Choose three.) A. AWS Config B. AWS Simple Notification Service C. AWS CloudWatch metrics D. AWS Lambda E. AWS CloudFormation F. AWS Identify and Access Management Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2 A company\\’s IT Security team needs to ensure that all servers within an Amazon VPC can communicate with a list of five approved external IPs only. The team also wants to receive a notification every time any server tries to open a connection with a non-approved endpoint. What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to ALL. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter on the VPC Flow Logs log group filtered by REJECT. Create an alarm for this metric to notify the Security team. B. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and the specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link the S3 object to the GuardDuty trusted IP list. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule on all GuardDuty findings to trigger an Amazon SNS notification to the Security team. C. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to REJECT. Set an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter for the log group on every event. Create an alarm for this metric to notify the Security team. D. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link the S3 object to the GuardDuty threat IP list. Integrate GuardDuty with a compatible SIEM to report on every alarm from GuardDuty. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A Network Engineer needs to create a public virtual interface on the company\\’s AWS Direct Connect connection and only import routes which originated from the same region as the Direct Connect location What action should accomplish this? A. Configure a prefix-list on the customer router containing the AWS IP address ranges for the specific region. B. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes with the 7224:8100 BGP community attribute. C. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3. D. Configure a filter in the console and only allow routes advertised by AWS without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 An organization will be extending its existing on-premises infrastructure into the cloud. The design consists of a transit VPC that contains stateful firewalls that will be deployed in a highly available configuration across two Availability Zones for automatic failover. What MUST be configured for this design to work? (Choose two.) A. A different Autonomous System Number (ASN) for each firewall. B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing C. Autonomous system (AS) path prepending D. Static routing E. Equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP) Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A corporate network routing table contains 624 individual RFC 1918 and public IP prefixes. You have two AWS Direct Connect connectors. You configure a private virtual interface on both connections to a virtual private gateway. The virtual private gateway is not currently attached to a VPC. Neither BGP session will maintain the Established state on the customer router. The AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interfaces as Down. What could you do to address the problem so that the AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interface as Available? A. Attach the virtual private gateway to a VPC and enable route propagation. B. Filter the public IP pre? xes on the corporate network from the private virtual interface. C. Change the BGP advertisements from the corporate network to only be a default route. D. Attach the second virtual interface to an alternative virtual private gateway. Correct Answer: D
[2020.11] Popular Amazon CLF-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A characteristic of edge locations is that they: A. host Amazon EC2 instances are closer to users. B. help lower latency and improve performance for users. C. cache frequently changing data without reaching the origin server. D. refresh data changes daily. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.edureka.co/community/600/what-is-an-edge-location-in-aws
QUESTION 2 The AWS Trusted Advisor checks include recommendations regarding which of the following? (Choose two.) A. Information on Amazon S3 bucket permissions B. AWS service outages C. Multi-factor authentication enabled on the AWS account root user D. Available software patches E. Number of users in the account Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/technology/trusted-advisor/best-practice-checklist/
QUESTION 3 A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could influence customer\\’s decision? (Choose two.) A. Reduced latency to users B. The application\\’s presentation in the local language C. Data sovereignty compliance D. Cooling costs in hotter climates E. Proximity to the customer\\’s office for on-site visits Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 Which Amazon RDS feature can be used to achieve high availability? A. Multiple Availability Zones B. Amazon Reserved Instances C. Provisioned IOPS storage D. Enhanced monitoring Correct Answer: A Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL, and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon\\’s failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database Mirroring (DBM). Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html
[2020.11] Popular Amazon DAS-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A retail company\\’s data analytics team recently created multiple product sales analysis dashboards for the average selling price per product using Amazon QuickSight. The dashboards were created from .csv files uploaded to Amazon S3. The team is now planning to share the dashboards with the respective external product owners by creating individual users in Amazon QuickSight. For compliance and governance reasons, restricting access is a key requirement. The product owners should view only their respective product analysis in the dashboard reports. Which approach should the data analytics team take to allow product owners to view only their products in the dashboard? A. Separate the data by product and use S3 bucket policies for authorization. B. Separate the data by product and use IAM policies for authorization. C. Create a manifest file with row-level security. D. Create dataset rules with row-level security. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A large company has a central data lake to run analytics across different departments. Each department uses a separate AWS account and stores its data in an Amazon S3 bucket in that account. Each AWS account uses the AWS Glue Data Catalog as its data catalog. There are different data lake access requirements based on roles. Associate analysts should only have read access to their departmental data. Senior data analysts can have access to multiple departments including theirs, but for a subset of columns only. Which solution achieves these required access patterns to minimize costs and administrative tasks? A. Consolidate all AWS accounts into one account. Create different S3 buckets for each department and move all the data from every account to the central data lake account. Migrate the individual data catalogs into a central data catalog and apply fine-grained permissions to give to each user the required access to tables and databases in AWS Glue and Amazon S3. B. Keep the account structure and the individual AWS Glue catalogs on each account. Add a central data lake account and use AWS Glue to catalog data from various accounts. Configure cross-account access for AWS Glue crawlers to scan the data in each departmental S3 bucket to identify the schema and populate the catalog. Add the senior data analysts into the central account and apply highly detailed access controls in the Data Catalog and Amazon S3. C. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake. Use AWS Lake Formation to catalog the cross-account locations. On each individual S3 bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls to allow senior analysts to view specific tables and columns. D. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake and configure a central S3 bucket. Use an AWS Lake Formation blueprint to move the data from the various buckets into the central S3 bucket. On each individual bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls for both associate and senior analysts to view specific tables and columns. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Once a month, a company receives a 100 MB .csv file compressed with gzip. The file contains 50,000 property listing records and is stored in Amazon S3 Glacier. The company needs its data analyst to query a subset of the data for a specific vendor. What is the most cost-effective solution? A. Load the data into Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon S3 Select. B. Query the data from Amazon S3 Glacier directly with Amazon Glacier Select. C. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Athena. D. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Redshift Spectrum. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/athena/faqs/
QUESTION 4 A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution. Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements? A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to join data that is older than 13 months. B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with additional storage capacity. C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3. D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the same AWS Glue Data Catalog. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A financial company uses Apache Hive on Amazon EMR for ad-hoc queries. Users are complaining of sluggish performance. A data analyst notes the following: Approximately 90% of the queries are submitted 1 hour after the market opens. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) utilization never exceeds 10%. Which solution would help address the performance issues? A. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. B. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. C. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. D. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 A company has two ArubaOS switches, Switch1 and Switch2. Switch1 will be the commander for a new Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric. Switch2 is a new switch that will be the standby member. The network administrator wants to configure the proper settings on the standby member interface before the standby member joins the fabric. What should the administrator do before the switches are joined in the VSF fabric? A. Configure the interface settings on Switch2. Then enable VSF on Switch2. B. Enable VSF on Switch2. Then configure the interface settings on Switch2. C. Provision member2 on Switch1. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch1. D. Provision member2 on Switch1 and member1 on Switch2. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch2. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which standard for wireless connectivity supports both 2.4GHz and 5GHz? A. 802.11a B. 802.11ac C. 802.11g D. 802.11n Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 What is one benefit that Aruba AirWave can provide to a customer with ArubaOS switches? A. It can audit switch firmware (software) and automate updates. B. It can enable the switches to provide mobility controller functions for connected Instant APs (IAPs). C. It can provide centralized authentication and authorization for users who log in to the switch CLI. D. It can program the switches to dynamically adjust QoS settings to prioritize Skype for Business traffic. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.google.co.in/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andved=0ahUKEwjKxOe v5JfUAhXGLI8KHVYWDvEQFggnMAAandurl=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.arubanetworks.com%2Fassets%2Fds% 2FDS_AW.pdfandusg=AFQjCNG2mDuwxsqBI8MHZoKPpteQmEJ71gandsig2=r3FEvyQVngpJKqQVz-kIOAandcad=rja
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, what is the problem? A. An issue causes the spanning tree to converge and re-converge again and again. B. Interface 25 on Switch-1 is incorrectly configured as an STP edge port and cause a loop to occur. C. Interface 25 on Switch-1 does not support the correct VLANs and prevents the interface from receiving the correct STP role. D. Switch-1 and another switch are configured with the same spanning-tree priority and cause the root election to occur again and again. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator installs a new aggregation and access layer in a campus network. All users in this area belong to the same VLAN. The administrator plugs the switches into the network with the factory default configurations. Which protocol must the administrator configure to prevent broadcast storms? A. MSTP B. LLDP C. OSPF D. LACP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A company needs a switch that supports 10GbE and 40GbE for its mid-sized campus. The company prefers stackable or fixed-port switches over modular switches. Which ArubaOS switch series best meet these needs? A. Aruba 2530 B. Aruba 2930F C. Aruba 3810 D. Aruba 5400R Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Exhibit 1.
Exhibit 2.
Assume that Switch-2 is correctly configured for OSPF. Which additional step must the administrator take to enable Switch-1 to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 to Switch-2? A. Set a router ID on Switch-1. B. Configure a route to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 on Switch-1. C. Add Switch-2\\’s router ID to Switch-1\\’s OSPF neighbor list. D. Enable OSPF on VLAN 2. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
Endpoint A sends broadcast ARP requests. Where are these requests received? A. at EndpointC B. at EndpointB C. at EndpointB, at EndpointC, and at EndpointD D. at EndpointB and at EndpointC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to manage Aruba 3810 Series switches deployed at the campus access layer. How does AirWave determine which configuration template to apply to these switches? A. based on their group B. based on their lowest level subfolder C. based on their top-level folder D. based on the global group associated with their group Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is a valid setup for a Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric? A. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member B. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and two 5406R zl2 switches as standby members C. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and two 5412R zl2 switches as standby members D. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator views the configuration files on an ArubaOS switch and sees the output in the exhibit. The administrator enters this command: Switch# boot system flash primary config config2 After the switch boots, the administrator makes some configuration changes and saves the configuration with the write memory command. The administrator then enters this command: Switch# boot After the switch boots, the configuration changes just made are not present. How can the administrator restore the configuration with the changes? A. Use the boot set-default command to configure the switch to use the secondary software. Then reboot the switch. B. Reboot the switch and interrupt the boot process. Find the temporary file with the configuration changes and apply that file to the startup-config. C. Rename the config2 file to config1. Then reboot the switch. D. Use the startup-default command to configure the switch to use the config2 file with the primary software. Then reboot the switch. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What is a requirement for links to successfully participate in an aggregated link? A. that links have the spanning tree protocol disabled B. that links use the same speed and duplex mode C. that links use the same media type and are untagged D. that links are untagged and are associated with the same VLAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which ArubaOS switch feature treats multiple ports as one logical port? A. OSPF B. STP C. VSF D. link aggregation Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 You are creating a logical array on an HPE ProLiant server. The customer asks you to use drives with different capacities in a single array. What should you explain to this customer? A. Using drives with different capacities in a single array increases the chance of disk failure B. The extra capacity of the larger drives will not be utilized C. The process to create the array will fail, and the server will not boot D. The RAID level will be set at RAID 0 automatically Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which HPE tool can securely erase the current content of a server and help with the consistent and easy operating system installation? A. HPE System Insight Manager B. HPE Intelligent Management Center (IMC) C. HPE OneView D. HPE Intelligent Provisioning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You are provisioning a new virtual disk group on an MSA storage system. Which disk group parameters must you specify when creating the vdisk? (Choose three.) A. RAID level B. LUN number C. type D. cache size E. name F. volume size Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4 You are troubleshooting an HPE ProLiant rack-mount server. You need to collect event data from the server, even when it is not operational. Which tool should you use? A. Insight Online B. InfoSight C. OS Event Viewer D. Integrated Management Log Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A customer needs to know if the storage solution you proposed contains components that are compatible with existing products currently in the data center. Which HPE resource should you use to provide this information? A. Storage Size B. One Config Advanced (OCA) C. One Config Simple (OCS) D. Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge (SPOCK) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space efficiency? A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A customer has implemented an HPE ProLiant server with internal storage and needs to monitor the array health status. Which management application can the customer use to discover errors quickly and minimize the possible downtime? A. Insight Online B. Smart Storage Administrator C. Intelligent Management Center D. InfoSight Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A customer needs to improve the throughput performance of iSCSI traffic on their Layer 2 switch. Which feature should the customer implement at the switch level? A. Jumbo frames B. Oversubscription C. SMB Direct D. Remote Data Memory Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A customer needs to deploy an application on a newly-installed HPE ProLiant server, but they report that the server is not online. They call you for remote support. The IP address on the production network cannot be reached. You are evaluating the probable root causes of this issue. According to the troubleshooting methodology, what are the next two steps? (Select two) A. Remote console into the ToR switch to check the server\\’s port configuration. B. Log in to iLO to see if the server hardware and NIC are online and configured correctly. C. Use OneView to see f the server firmware is up-to-date D. Run insight Diagnostics on the Server E. Use Microsoft Remote Desktop or VNC to check the server\\’s NIC and IP address configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Why is RAID 6 the best option for a large RAID set for archive storage on large-capacity drives? A. to reduce risk during volume rebuild B. to increase write performance on the volume C. to maximize the capacity of the volume D. to reduce drive wear Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 You are onsite at a customer location to install a new network switch. The customer wants users to be able to manage the switch through the IP network. How should you connect the switch to the network? A. Configure multiple user IDs or roles for the console connection B. Configure the management IP address on the switch and enable Telnet or SSH access C. Use a dedicated console cable to create a dedicated management network for every user D. Connect the switch to the network by using the serial cable that ships with the switch Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which HPE Server family is purpose-built for HPC workloads, Big Data Analytics, object storage, and enterprise service provider needs? A. HPE ProLiant DL servers B. HPE Apollo server C. HPE Synergy servers D. HPE Edgeline servers Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/apollo-4000.html
QUESTION 2 Which industry-standard protocol is typically used to communicate with remote resources on mobile applications? A. NFS B. HTTP C. STP D. TRILL Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://ms15.voip.edu.tw/~sandra/paper/CwC.pdf
QUESTION 3 A customer is considering a refresh of their ToR switches because they need 25 GbE connectivity. Which switch should you recommend? A. FlexFabric 5945 B. FlexFabric 5940 C. FlexFabric 5980 D. FlexFabric 5710 Correct Answer: A Explaining: High-density 100GbE/40GbE/25GbE/10GbE spine/top-of-rack (ToR) connectivity Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getmobile.aspx?docname=a00049249enw
QUESTION 4 A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need? A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter B. an installed iLo Advanced license C. Secure Boot enabled D. Two-factor authentication enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which HPE tool is used to access 3PAR performance information? A. NinjaCrawler B. SAF Collect C. SAF Analyze D. NinjaStars Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A customer is running a virtualized application with the data stored on their server\\’s local storage. As the storage space is getting full, they are looking into a new storage system. Their IT generalist would like to use a single management interface for the new solution. Which solution should you recommend to the customer? A. HPE Nimble HF20 B. HPE MSA 2052 C. HPE SimpliVity 380 D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 Correct Answer: D Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf
QUESTION 7 A customer has expressed concerns about the security of using RESTful API to do a survey against their existing infrastructure. What should you say about the REST client to alleviate the customer\\’s concerns? A. It uses SNMP v2. B. It uses HTTPS. C. It uses SNMP v3. D. It uses WBEM. Correct Answer: C It defines the User-based Security Model (USM), providing for both Authenticated and Private (encrypted) SNMP messages Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3584
QUESTION 8 A customer is requesting new leaf switches for their 40-server virtualization farm. Their servers are currently equipped with 25GbE NICs. Which switch family should you recommend? A. HPE FlexFabric 5710 24SFP+ 6S+ B. HPE FlexFabric 12916E Switch with QSFP28 HB modules C. HPE FlexFabric 5945 48SFP28 8QSFP28 D. HPE FlexFabric 5710 48XGT 2QSF28 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/networking/networking-switches/hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series/p/1010907030
QUESTION 10 A customer is considering purchasing an application that requires a highly-available NUMA platform that will scale up to 16 processors. They ask you which HPE compute solution will meet their needs. Which solution should you recommend? A. HPE BladeSystem B. HPE ProLiant DL C. HPE Synergy D. HPE Superdome Flex Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na-a00041133en_us
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT During Synergy solution onboarding, the customer asks about a firmware overview of all the computing modules at once. Click where you can access the information. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 During an HPE SimpliVity solution presentation, a potential customer asks about the HPE SimpliVity RapidDR option in the Bill of Material. How should you respond? A. It allows configuring a high-availability solution between two sites for automatic failover and fallback in disaster recovery situations. B. It is required for a multi-site HPE SimpliVity configuration to send VM backups to remote clusters. C. It enables orchestration for site-to-site recovery to improve application availability during planned or unplanned events. D. It is a requirement to guarantee the 1-minute restore of a 1TB virtual machine. Correct Answer: D HPE guarantees the ability to restore a 1TB VM within one minute, meaning that the customer saved approx. 70% of time Reference: https://veracompadria.com/en/simplivity-demystified/
QUESTION 13 A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply? A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects to their management network with two uplinks. B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect to their management network. C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\\’s workload is not supported. D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network. Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Packet Filtering Firewalls can also enable access for: A. only authorized application port or service numbers. B. only unauthorized application port or service numbers. C. only authorized application port or ex-service numbers. D. only authorized application port or service integers. Correct Answer: A
Firewall rules can be used to enable access for traffic to specific ports or services. “Service numbers” is rather stilted English but you may encounter these types of wordings on the actual exam — don\\’t let them confuse you. “Only unauthorized application port or service numbers” is incorrect. Unauthorized ports/services would be blocked in a properly installed a firewall rather than permitting access. “Only authorized application port or ex-service numbers” is incorrect. “Ex-service” numbers is a nonsense term meant to distract you. “Only authorized application port or service integers.” While service numbers are in fact integers, the more usual (and therefore better) the answer is either service or “service number.” References CBK, p. 464 AIO3, pp. 482 484
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is an example of a connectionless communication protocol? A. UDP B. X.25 C. Packet switching D. TCP Correct Answer: A
UDP is an example of a connectionless communication protocol, wherein no connection needs to be established before data can be exchanged. In telecommunications, connectionless describes communication between two network endpoints in which a message can be sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement. The device at one end of the communication transmits data addressed to the other, without first ensuring that the recipient is available and ready to receive the data. Some protocols allow for error correction by requested retransmission. Internet Protocol (IP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are connectionless protocols. Connectionless protocols are also described as stateless because the endpoints have no protocol- defined way to remember where they are in a “conversation” of message exchanges. List of connectionless protocols Hypertext Transfer Protocol IP UDP ICMP IPX TIPC NetBEUI References: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 86). and https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Connectionless_protocol
QUESTION 3 Related to information security, the guarantee that the message sent is the message received with the assurance that the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered is an example of which of the following? A. integrity B. confidentiality C. availability D. identity Correct Answer: A
Integrity is the guarantee that the message sent is the message received, and that the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 60.
QUESTION 4 Which backup method copies only files that have changed since the last full backup, but does not clear the archive bit? A. Differential backup method. B. Full backup method. C. Incremental backup method. D. Tape backup method. Correct Answer: A
One of the key items to understand regarding backup is the archive bit. The archive bit is used to determine what files have been backuped already. The archive bit is set if a file is modified or a new file is created, this indicates to the backup program that it has to be saved on the next backup. When a full backup is performed the archive bit will be cleared indicating that the files were backup. This allows backup programs to do an incremental or differential backup that only backs up the changes to the filesystem since the last time the bit was cleared Full Backup (or Reference Backup) A Full backup will backup all the files and folders on the drive every time you run the full backup. The archive bit is cleared on all files indicating they were all backuped. Advantages: All files from the selected drives and folders are backed up to one backup set. In the event you need to restore files, they are easily restored from the single backup set. Disadvantages: A full backup is more time consuming than other backup options. Full backups require more disk, tape, or network drive space. Incremental Backup An incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new since the last incremental backup. For the first incremental backup, all files in the file set are backed up (just as in a full backup). If you use the same file set to perform an incremental backup later, only the files that have changed are backed up. If you use the same file set for a third backup, only the files that have changed since the second backup are backed up, and so on. Incremental backup will clear the archive bit. Advantages: Backup time is faster than full backups. Incremental backups require less disk, tape, or network drive space. You can keep several versions of the same files on different backup sets. Disadvantages: In order to restore all the files, you must have all of the incremental backups available. It may take longer to restore a specific file since you must search more than one backup set to find the latest version of a file. Differential Backup A differential backup provides a backup of files that have changed since a full backup was performed. A differential backup typically saves only the files that are different or new since the last full backup. Together, a full backup and a differential backup include all the files on your computer, changed and unchanged. Differential backup does not clear the archive bits. Advantages: Differential backups require even less disk, tape, or network drive space than incremental backups. Backup time is faster than full or incremental backups. Disadvantages: Restoring all your files may take considerably longer since you may have to restore both the last differential and full backup. Restoring an individual file may take longer since you have to locate the file on either the differential or full backup. For more info see: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/136621 Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 69.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving? A. Incremental backup method B. Off-site backup method C. Full backup method D. Differential backup method Correct Answer: C
The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 69).
QUESTION 6 What is RAD? A. A development methodology B. A project management technique C. A measure of system complexity D. Risk-assessment diagramming Correct Answer: A
RAD stands for Rapid Application Development. RAD is a methodology that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and maintaining quality. RAD is a programming system that enables programmers to quickly build working programs. In general, RAD systems provide a number of tools to help build graphical user interfaces that would normally take a large development effort. Two of the most popular RAD systems for Windows are Visual Basic and Delphi. Historically, RAD systems have tended to emphasize reducing development time, sometimes at the expense of generating in-efficient executable code. Nowadays, though, many RAD systems produce extremely faster code that is optimized. Conversely, many traditional programming environments now come with a number of visual tools to aid development. Therefore, the line between RAD systems and other development environments has become blurred. Reference: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 307) http://www.webopedia.com
QUESTION 7 What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password? A. passphrase B. cognitive phrase C. anticipated phrase D. Real phrase Correct Answer: A
A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 37.
QUESTION 8 Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the corporate network over analog lines? A. TACACS B. Call-back C. CHAP D. RADIUS Correct Answer: B
Call-back allows for a distant user connecting into a system to be called back at a number already listed in a database of trusted users. The disadvantage of this system is that the user must be at a fixed location whose phone number is known to the authentication server. Being mobile workers, users are accessing the system from multiple locations, making call-back inappropriate for them. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 44).
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system? A. People B. Software C. Communications D. Hardware Correct Answer: A
The Answer: People. The other choices can be strengthened and counted on (For the most part) to remain consistent if properly protected. People are fallible and unpredictable. Most security intrusions are caused by employees. People get tired, careless, and greedy. They are not always reliable and may falter in following defined guidelines and best practices. Security professionals must install adequate prevention and detection controls and properly train all systems users Proper hiring and firing practices can eliminate certain risks. Security Awareness training is key to ensuring people are aware of risks and their responsibilities. The following answers are incorrect: Software. Although software exploits are a major threat and cause concern, people are the weakest point in a security posture. The software can be removed, upgraded, or patched to reduce risk. Communications. Although many attacks from inside and outside an organization use communication methods such as the network infrastructure, this is not the weakest point in a security posture. Communications can be monitored, devices installed, or upgraded to reduce risk and react to attack attempts. Hardware. Hardware components can be a weakness in a security posture, but they are not the weakest link of the choices provided. Access to hardware can be minimized by such measures as installing locks and monitoring access in and out of certain areas. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Shon Harris AIO v.3 P.19, 107-109 ISC2 OIG 2007, p.51-55
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is the most reliable, secure means of removing data from magnetic storage media such as a magnetic tape, or a cassette? A. Degaussing B. Parity Bit Manipulation C. Zeroization D. Buffer overflow Correct Answer: A
A “Degausser (Otherwise known as a Bulk Eraser) has the main function of reducing to near zero the magnetic flux stored in the magnetized medium. Flux density is measured in Gauss or Tesla. The operation is speedier than overwriting and done in one short operation. This is achieved by subjecting the subject in bulk to a series of fields of alternating polarity and gradually decreasing strength. The following answers are incorrect: Parity Bit Manipulation. Parity has to do with disk error detection, not data removal. A bit or series of bits appended to a character or block of characters to ensure that the information received is the same as the information that was sent. Zeroization. Zeroization involves overwriting data to sanitize it. It is time-consuming and not foolproof. The potential for restoration of data does exist with this method. Buffer overflow. This is a detractor. Although many Operating Systems use a disk buffer to temporarily hold data read from disk, its primary purpose has no connection to data removal. An overflow goes outside the constraints defined for the buffer and is a method used by an attacker to attempt access to a system. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Shon Harris AIO v3. pg 908 Reference: What is degaussing.
QUESTION 11 What level of assurance for a digital certificate verifies a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other information against a credit bureau database? A. Level 1/Class 1 B. Level 2/Class 2 C. Level 3/Class 3 D. Level 4/Class 4 Correct Answer: B
Users can obtain certificates with various levels of assurance. Here is a list that describes each of them: – Class 1/Level 1 for individuals, intended for email, no proof of identity For example, level 1 certificates verify electronic mail addresses. This is done through the use of a personal information number that a user would supply when asked to register. This level of the certificate may also provide a name as well as an electronic mail address; however, it may or may not be a genuine name (i.e., it could be an alias). This proves that a human being will reply back if you send an email to that name or email address. – Class 2/Level 2 is for organizations and companies for which proof of identity is required Level 2 certificates verify a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other information against a credit bureau database. – Class 3/Level 3 is for servers and software signing, for which independent verification and checking of identity and authority is done by the issuing certificate authority Level 3 certificates are available to companies. This level of the certificate provides photo identification to accompany the other items of information provided by a level 2 certificate. – Class 4 for online business transactions between companies – Class 5 for private organizations or governmental security References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_certificate VeriSign introduced the concept of classes of digital certificates: Also, see: Source: TIPTON, Harold F., and KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1), 2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3, Secured Connections to External Networks (page 54).
QUESTION 12 What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common? A. They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks. B. They have nothing in common. C. They are both masquerading attacks. D. They are both social engineering attacks. Correct Answer: C
While a masquerading attack can be considered a type of social engineering, the Melissa and ILOVEYOU viruses are examples of masquerading attacks, even if it may cause some kind of denial of service due to the webserver being flooded with messages. In this case, the receiver confidently opens a message coming from a trusted individual, only to find that the message was sent using the trusted party\\’s identity. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 650).
QUESTION 13 What is electronic vaulting? A. Information is backed up to tape on an hourly basis and is stored in an on-site vault. B. Information is backed up to tape on a daily basis and is stored in an on-site vault. C. Transferring electronic journals or transaction logs to an off-site storage facility D. A transfer of bulk information to a remote central backup facility. Correct Answer: D
Electronic vaulting is defined as “a method of transferring bulk information to off-site facilities for backup purposes”. Remote Journaling is the same concept as electronic vaulting but has to do with journals and transaction logs, not the actual files. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 619).
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QUESTION 1 Which server sits in the DMZ and allows external devices to connect to the Horizon Mirage service? A. Mirage Server B. Mirage Branch Reflector C. Mirage Management Server D. Mirage Gateway Server Correct Answer: D Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/consulting/tag/horizon-mirage
QUESTION 2 Which vSphere component is used to manage multiple hosts in a cluster? A. ESXI B. vDS C. vCenter Server D. VUM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails? A. vSphere Data Protection B. High Availability C. Fault Tolerance D. vSphere Replication Correct Answer: C In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf
QUESTION 6 A company wants to implement a software-defined network solution with minimal impact on the existing environment. What additional hardware, if any, is required when implementing VMware NSX? A. A stateful inspection Firewall to take advantage of NSX\\’s built-in Firewall protection B. None. NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution. C. Special VLAN configurations for accessing NSX. D. At least two Layer 3 switches that must be converted to trunk mode. Correct Answer: B NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution which can be deployed on any IP network from any vendor ? both existing traditional networking models and next-generation fabric architectures. The physical network infrastructure already in place is all that is required to deploy a software-defined data center with NSX. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmw-nsx-networkvirtualization-design-guide.pdf
QUESTION 7 A large bank wants to automate their infrastructure provisioning. They need a portal that provides the ability to check the health of a virtual machine and perform day-two actions, such as power-on and power-off. Which product in the vRealize Suite offers this functionality? A. vRealize Orchestrator B. vRealize Operations Manager C. vRealize Automation D. vRealize Business Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which component in VMware NSX provides L2 bridging from the logical networking space VXLAN to the physical space? A. NSX virtual switch B. Logical Router control VM C. Logical router D. NSX Edge virtual appliance Correct Answer: C The logical routers can provide L2 bridging from the logical networking space (VXLAN) to the physical network (VLAN). Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-for-vSphere/6.3/nsx_63_admin.pdf
QUESTION 9 Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.) A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them. B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing. C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads. D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud. E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html
QUESTION 10 A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign-On (SSO)? A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016 B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System C. Only Horizon 7 is required D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture are true? (Choose two.) A. Deployment of services across clouds is manual. B. Works only on certain underlying clouds or hypervisors. C. Provides the ability to run, manage, connect, and secure applications across clouds. D. Provides cloud freedom, but not control. E. Provides the freedom to innovate across both private clouds and public clouds. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite editions? (Choose three.) A. Enterprise Plus B. Foundations C. Advanced D. Enterprise E. Professional F. Standard Correct Answer: CDF Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
QUESTION 13 What are the three vRealize Suite editions offered by VMware? A. Standard, Advanced, Enterprise B. Standard, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus C. Foundation, Standard, Enterprise D. Advanced, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus Correct Answer: A VMware vRealize Suite cloud management platform is available in three editions: Standard, Advanced, and Enterprise. New portable licensing allows customers to manage multi-vendor private and public clouds with common licensing. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
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Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Examine the description of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:
Examine this partial SQL statement: SELECT * FROM books_transactions Which two WHERE conditions give the same result? A. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’)); B. WHERE (borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’) OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); C. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND (member_id = A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’)); D. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); E. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND member_id = `A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’); Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.) A. The ORDER BY Clause can be used in a subquery. B. A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement. C. If a subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return rows. D. A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, a GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause. E. Logical operators, such as AND, OR, and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are true reading subqueries? (Choose three.) A. A-Main query can have many subqueries. B. A subquery can have more than one main query. C. The subquery and the main query must retrieve the date from the same table. D. The subquery and main query can retrieve data from different tables. E. Only one column or expression can be compared between the subquery and main query. F. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the subquery and main query. Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 4 A non-correlated subquery can be defined as __________. (Choose the best answer.) A. A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in the outer query. B. A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table. C. A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value. D. A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.) A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row. B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes. C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query. D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL > DROP TABLE products; Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.) A. All data along with the table structure is deleted. B. A pending transaction in the session is committed. C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated. D. All views and synonyms on the table remain but they are invalidated. E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7 Examine the structure of the two tables.
Which two queries execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements are true about a full outer join? A. It includes rows that are returned by an inner join. B. It returns only unmatched rows from both tables being joined. C. It includes rows that are returned by a Cartesian product. D. It returns matched and unmatched rows from both tables being joined. E. The Oracle joins operator (+) must be used on both sides of the join condition in the WHERE clause. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://www.w3resource.com/oracle/joins/oracle-full-outer-join.php
QUESTION 9 The SQL statements executed in a user session are as follows:
Which two statements describe the consequences of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT a command in the session? (Choose two.) A. The rollback generates an error. B. No SQL statements are rolled back. C. Only the DELETE statements are rolled back. D. Only the second DELETE statement is rolled back. E. Both the DELETE statements and the UPDATE statement are rolled back. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
Which statement is true regarding the above commands? A. Both execute successfully and give correct results. B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result. D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table:
Which query retrieves the number of products with a full list price? A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; B. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price = NULL; D. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-aggregate-functions/oracle-avg/
QUESTION 12 Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c? A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation. B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server. C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface. D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express. E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.) A. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the session\\’s temporary tablespace. B. It enables sessions to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement if it occurs more than once in a complex query. C. It enables sessions to store a query block permanently in memory and use it to create complex queries. D. It enables sessions to store the results of a query permanently. Correct Answer: AB
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