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Latest CompTIA 220-1002 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the amount of memory a user is limited to with a 32-bit version of Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Joe, a customer, requests to have a technician rename his laptop to the name of his favorite sports team. Which of the
following documents MUST the technician consider before performing this action?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Inventory management
C. EULA
D. MDM policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following steps would allow display output from a laptop to an external display? (Select TWO).
A. Press the appropriate Function Key combination
B. A second video card in the Express card slot
C. Disconnect the integrated display
D. Enabling second monitor in the Windows Display Settings
E. Loading external monitor drivers on the laptop
Correct Answer: AD
First enable second monitor in Windows Display settings. After that press the function key along with the assigned key
to display the output on an external monitor

QUESTION 4
A user notices recent print jobs are not printing to the local printer despite printing fine yesterday. There are no errors
indicated on the taskbar printer icon. Which of the following actions should the user take FIRST?
A. Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer
B. Check the status of the print server queue
C. Cancel all documents and print them again
D. Check that the printer is not offline print mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user brings in an older CRT monitor and reports there are issues with the colors and bands of discoloration.
Which of the following should be done to correct the issue?
A. Replace the power cord
B. Reformat
C. Increase the refresh rate
D. Degauss
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A SOHO has had several issues with various unauthorized devices consuming the network\\’s bandwidth. There are
only four network devices that are authorized to access the Internet as well as the local LAN\\’s resources. Which of the
following security implementations would MOST likely help disable network access to the unauthorized devices?
A. Using complex passwords
B. Disabling the use of static IP addresses
C. Disabling ports
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Windows Enterprise OS version Offers BitLocker as a feature that can be enabled?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network administrator needs to be able to securely connect to a local router from within the office. Which of the
following protocols should the administrator ensure is enabled on the router?
A. RDP
B. SSH
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Joe, a user, reports that several of his colleagues have received a suspicious email from his account that he did not
send. A technician asks one of the colleagues to forward the email for inspection. After ruling out spoofing, the
technician verifies the email originated from the corporate email server.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take to correct this issue?
A. See if Joe\\’s email address has been blacklisted
B. Change the password on Joe\\’s email account
C. Update the antivirus and perform a full scan on the PC
D. Isolate Joe\\’s computer from the network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Joe. a technician, receives notification that a share for production data files on the network Is encrypted. Joe suspects a
crypto virus Is active. He checks the rights of the network share to see which departments have access. He then
searches the user directories of those departmental users who are looking for encrypted files. He narrows his search to
a single user\\’s computer. Once the suspected source of the virus is discovered and removed from the network, which
of the following should Joe do NEXT?
A. Educate the end user on safe browsing and email habits.
B. Scan and remove the malware from the infected system.
C. Create a system restore point and reboot the system.
D. Schedule antivirus scans and perform Windows updates.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account.
Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?
A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following user groups had default administrative permissions in previous versions of Windows, but now has
no default user rights m Windows 7 and above?
A. Power Users
B. Performance Monitor Users
C. Administrators
D. Guests
E. Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A technician receives a phone call regarding ransomware that has been detected on a PC in a remote office. Which of
the following steps should the technician take FIRST?
A. Disconnect the PC from the network
B. Perform an antivirus scan
C. Run a backup and restore
D. Educate the end user
Correct Answer: A

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Latest CompTIA 220-1001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues after a new wireless router was installed in an office. Users
who connect to the new router are unable to access LAN resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of
the issue?
A. There are conflicting DHCP servers on the network
B. There are conflicting ARP records
C. There are conflicting gateways on the network
D. There are conflicting IP protocols
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user brings in a smartphone for repair. The device is unable to send/receive calls or connect to WiFi. All applications
on the device are working unless they require connectivity.
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?
A. Airplane mode
B. Tethering
C. Disabled hotspot
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following channels would commonly be used on an 802.11 wireless network?
A. 6
B. 17
C. 802
D. 8080
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the main purpose of the +5VSB output of a power supply?
A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off
B. It provides power to the audio and sound boards of the machine
C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor
D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wirelessly to the network. Which of the following would be
the BEST device to use?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Access point
D. Hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A shipping department is having problems with its thermal label printer. Two columns on the left are not appearing on all
labels. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?
A. Verify the ribbon is correctly aligned to the label
B. Run a label calibration
C. Remove stuck labels from the print path
D. Replace the print head
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?
A. Molex connector
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the
docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Check for firmware updates
B. Configure extended display mode
C. Replace the external monitor
D. Adjust the laptop\\’s BIOS settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issue with a remote host. Which of the following tools BEST inform
the technician of nodes between the client and the host? (Select TWO).
A. tracert
B. ping
C. tcpdump
D. pathping
E. netstate
F. nslookup
G. router
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP (2)
A customer, Ann, has requested two custom PCs, one to be used for gaming and the other to be used as a virtualization
workstation for her business.
The gaming PC should support the latest games and gaming peripherals.
The virtualization workstation should be able to host several production virtual machines as part of Ann\\’s home
business.
INSTRUCTIONS
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Objects should be placed on the appropriate slot/display areas and can only be used once.
All slot/display areas should be filled.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
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QUESTION 11
A user is experiencing email problems and explains to a technician that all emails with graphics or images do not display
the graphics.
Which of the following configurations would correct this behavior?
A. Change the email settings in antivirus.
B. Change the security settings of the email client.
C. Change the firewall security settings.
D. Change the email proxy settings.
E. Change the trusted sites in the browser settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A user has requested a device that could be used for web-conferences while away from work. The device will mainly be
used for emailing, document reviewing, and phone calls. Which of the following mobile devices would a technician
MOST likely recommend?
A. Tablet
B. Smart camera
C. Phablet
D. Web camera
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A company asks a technician to recommend a solution to conserve paper without degrading print quality. Which of the
following printer settings would BEST enable the technician to accomplish this request?
A. Density
B. Collate
C. Duplex
D. Color management
Correct Answer: C

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Latest CompTIA 220-902 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?
A. 478
B. 939
C. 1366
D. AM2+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A computer was recently infected by malware after a flash drive was plugged in. The user, Ann, indicates she never
opened any files or folders from the flash drive. A technician needs to prevent this from occurring in the future. Which of
the following would accomplish this?
A. BitLocker To Go
B. Set strong passwords
C. Disable usermin
D. Disable AutoRun
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
After an installation of a video adapter, the screen on a Windows 7 system cannot be seen. Which of the following
Windows 7 functions will resolve this?
A. Component Management
B. Startup Repair
C. Device Manager
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following file formats does Android use for application installation?
A. .ipa
B. .api
C. .apk
D. .exe
E. .sdk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A file is moved from one folder to another within the same disk volume. Which of the following will happen to the
permissions on the file?
A. The file will get the permissions of both folders
B. The file will get the permissions of the destination folder
C. The file will keep the original permissions
D. The file will have all permissions removed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A technician has just upgraded RAM on a user\\’s workstation from 4GB to 8GB. The technician now wants to adjust the
page file size on the system to the recommended Microsoft settings. Which of the following should be entered for the
“Min” portion of the page file setting if using these best practices?
A. 4096MB
B. 8192MB
C. 12288MB
D. 16328MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is configuring a SOHO network of several Windows 7 PCs for a customer. The customer wants to easily
share media and printers between all the PCs. Which of the following Windows features would BEST accomplish this\\’
A. Homegroup
B. Workgroup
C. Directory Services
D. Offline Folders
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following security threats requires the attacker to be physically located near the target machine?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Social engineering
C. Phishing
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is a common symptom of a problem starting up the Windows 7 operating system?
A. Spontaneous shutdown/restart
B. Invalid boot disk
C. WinRE won\\’t start
D. The optical disc failed
E. Emergency repair disk doesn\\’t boot
F. REGSVR32 has failed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Ann, a user, reports that a newly purchased laptop is only showing 65GB total on the C. drive, but she purchased a
100GB hard drive. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this difference?
A. The unavailable space is set aside for Windows system files
B. The manufacturer provided a factory recovery partition
C. Corrupted data is being stored in the unused space
D. The partition was setup incorrectly and needs to be extended
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A user has installed a new USB port replicator for use with their notebook PC. When the replicator monitor port is
connected to a monitor, the monitor will only display at its lowest resolution. Which of the following is the MOST likely
cause of this issue?
A. The monitor self-adjustment control must be configured.
B. The monitor is failing and needs to be checked by a technician.
C. The drivers for the port replicator may not be current.
D. The notebook BIOS is not current and must be updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator has moved several users\\’ folders to a different server. After mapping to the new shared drive,
the users can access each other\\’s\\’ files. Which of the following could be the cause of this issue?
A. Administrator permissions
B. File permissions
C. File fragmentation
D. Network segmentation
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which are three SKUs for Mobility Express? (Choose three.)
A. AIR-AP2802I-K9
B. AIR-AP1815W-x-K9
C. AIR-AP1815I-K9C
D. AIR-AP3802I-K9C
E. AIR-AP1852I-K9
F. AIR-AP2802I-K9C
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 2
Which three statements regarding Mobility Express are true? (Choose three.)
A. Runs wireless LAN controller function on an access point
B. Ideal for sites with up to 200access points and 2000 clients
C. Provisioning to configure the controller
D. Supported on all Wave 2 access points
E. Supports simple Over-the-Air
F. Supports Workgroup Bridge mode of operation
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which are the two advantages of having Direct Internet Access? (Choose two.)
A. Limits guest Wi-Fi at the branch
B. Secure WAN transport
C. Protects remote employees
D. Threat mitigation techniques
E. Leverage local internet path
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
What are two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price
B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which two are Cisco recommended controller options for deployment of up to 150 AP\\’s? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 8540 WLC
B. Cisco 3504 WLC
C. Cisco 5508 WLC
D. Cisco 5520 WLC
E. Cisco mobility Express
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
How does Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their
entire environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government,
private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations
B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their
environment
C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based
threat intelligence
D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization
E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW,
NGIPS and VPN
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Always on (availability groups)
B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)
C. Warm spare (using VRRP)
D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)
E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the valid shard range for an object DN?
A. 1-64
B. 1-16
C. 0-15
D. 1-32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco ACI interaction with STP in legacy networks are true? (Choose two)
A. External switches ignore flooded BPDU frames received from the Cisco ACI fabric.
B. BPDU guard is enabled on FEX ports by default.
C. BPDU guard cannot be configured on leaf edge ports.
D. STP is enabled by default within the Cisco ACI fabric.
E. BPDU frame is flooded within EPG No configuration is required.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0? (Choose two.)
A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit shell:domains = domain / Role1 | Role2 | Role3 / Role4 | Role5 | Role6
In the Cisco AV Pair, which two options are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Role1 = Read
B. Role2 = Read
C. Role5 = Write
D. Role2 = Write
E. Role6 = Write
F. Role1 = Write
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true\\’? (Choose
two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Where does the VIP for the vPC come from?
A. assigned by Cisco ARC from the management tenant IP space.
B. allocated from the vPC domain number assigned to the vPC peers.
C. DHCP from the infra TEP pool leaf portion.
D. DHCP from the infra TEP pool VIP portion.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to successfully SSH into a Cisco ARC or switch CLI using a remote authentication server?
A. apic#rad_check//[email protected]
B. ssh apic#rad_check\\[email protected]
C. ssh apic#ad_ch?k//[email protected]
D. ssh [email protected]_check\\[email protected]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
F16438[FSM:STAGE:FAILED]: Establish connection Stage: comp/prov-VMware/ ctrlr-[RTPACILab]-TestVcenter Failed
to retrieve ServiceContent from the vCenter server 10.122.253.152(FSM-STAGE:ifc:vmmmgr:CompCtrlrAdd:Connect)lead4pass 500-601 exam question q13

Which option is a potential reason why you would see this output while provisioning a DVS?
A. The specified data center does not exist on the vCenter m question.
B. The Cisco APIC(s) cannot reach the vCenter host/vm.
C. The Service Content process has crashed.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the vswitch policy tied to the corresponding AAEP.
Correct Answer: A

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Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 pdf

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the EAP Authentication type on the left to the accurate description provided on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-375 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-375 exam question q1-2

QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting rogue access points that are showing up in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
What is the maximum number of APs the engineer can use to contain an identified rogue access point in the WLC?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be
configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement?
A. self-registration guest portal
B. client provisioning
C. native supplicant provisioning
D. local web auth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options are types of MFP that can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. message integrity check
B. infrastructure
C. client
D. AES-CCMP
E. RSN
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/82196-mfp.html#climfp

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose
two)
A. DHCP profiling
B. DHCP address assignment
C. passive client
D. RADIUS NAC
E. AAA override
Correct Answer: DE
Allow AAA Override: Enabled NAC State: Radius NAC (selected)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/113476-wireless-byod-ise-00.html

QUESTION 6
An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a wireless LAN controller and wants to use the combination of authentication
and privacy protocols with the highest security available. Which protocols must be configured?
A. CBC-DES with HMAC-MD5
B. CFB-AES-128 with HMAC-MD5
C. CBC-DES with HMAC-SHA
D. CBF-AES-128 with HMAC-SHA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An engineer is working on a remote site that is configured using FlexConnect. They are worried that the access points
will not send RADIUS requests directly to the authentication server is standalone mode. Which command ensures direct
authentication using the default ports as defined on the WLC?
A. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
B. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
C. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
D. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring a BYOD deployment strategy and prefers a single SSID model. Which technology is required
to accomplish this configuration?
A. mobility service engine
B. wireless control system
C. identity service engine
D. Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Please refer to the section “Single SSID Wireless BYOD Self Registration” of the below mentioned link.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/how_to/HowTo-61-BYOD-Onboarding_Registering_and_Provisioning.pdf

QUESTION 9
An engineer is changing the authentication method of a wireless network from EAP-FAST to EAP-TLS. Which two
changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Secure ACS is required.
B. A Cisco NAC server is required.
C. All authenticating clients require their own certificates.
D. The authentication server now requires a certificate.
E. The users require the Cisco AnyConnect client.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1300-series/prod_qas09186a00802030dc.html

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What do the red circles represent in the exhibit?lead4pass 300-375 exam question q10

A. detected interferers
B. wIPs attacker
C. RSSI cutoff
D. zones of impact
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series,
CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table
below:lead4pass 300-375 exam question q11

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/mobility/configuration_guide/b_mobility_3se_3850_cg/b_mobility_32se_3850_cg_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 12
How should the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2 and the Cisco WLC v7.0 be configured to support wireless client
authentication?
A. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (Cisco Airespace)
B. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (IETF)
C. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco Airespace)
D. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco IOS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option determines which RADIUS server is preferred the most by the Cisco WLC?
A. the Server Index (Priority) drop-down list
B. the server status
C. the server IP address
D. the port number
Correct Answer: A
If you are adding a new server, choose a number from theServer Index (Priority) drop-down list to specify the priority
order of this server in relation to any other configured RADIUS servers providing the same service. You can configure
up to 17 servers. If the controller cannot reach the first server, it tries the second one in the list, then the third one if
necessary, and so on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html

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Exam 70-412: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx

Skills measured

  • Configure and Manage High Availability
  • Configure File and Storage Solutions
  • Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
  • Configure Network Services
  • Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
  • Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions

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Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are employed as a network administrator at consoto.com.
Contoso.com has in an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All Servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
A contoso.com server ,named Server1,hosts the Active Directory Certificate Services Server role and utilizes a
hardware security module(HSM) to safeguard its private key.
You have beed instructed to backup the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) database,log files,and private key
regularly.
You should not use a utility supplied by the hardware security module (HSM) creator.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider scheduling an incremental backup
B. You Should consider making use of the certutil.exe command.
C. You should consider schedulling a differential backup
D. You should consider schedulling a copy backup
Correct Answer: B
A. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
B. -Backup, -backupdb, -backupKey: You can use Certutil.exe to dump and display certification authority (CA)
configuration information, configure Certificate Services, backup and restore CA components, and verify certificates, key
pairs, and certificate chains.
C. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
D. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
http://technet.microsoft.com/library/cc732443.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backup http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupDB
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/ library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupKey
http://blogs.technet.com/b/pki/archive/2010/04/20/disaster-recovery-procedures-for- theactive-directorycertificate-
services-adcs.aspxlead4pass 70-412 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
You network contains one Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
All domain computers use Server1 for DNS.
You sign adatum.com by using DNSSEC.
You need to configure the domain computers to validate DNS responses for adatum.com records.
What should you configure in Group Policy?
A. Network List Manager Policies
B. Network Access Protection (NAP)
C. Name Resolution Policy
D. Public Key Policy
Correct Answer: C
Name resolution policy needs to be configured in group policy. “In both example 1 and example 2, validation is not
required for the secure.contoso.com zone because the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is not configured to
require validation.” https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj200221.aspx

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receives the following error message.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3

You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not
appear. What should you do?
A. Run the Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet.
B. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Add Admin1 to the Cert Publishers group.
Correct Answer: B
*
Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services The error message is related to missing role configuration.
*
Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and
Certification Authority Web Enrollment Roles.
*
Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) is an Active Directory tool that lets administrators customize services in
order to issue and manage public key certificates.
AD CS included:
CA Web enrollment – connects users to a CA with a Web browser Certification authorities (CAs) – manages certificate
validation and issues certificates Etc.
Incorrect:
Not A. The CA is installed, it just need to be configured correctly.
Note: Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority
The Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet performs installation and configuration of the AD CS CA role service.
Reference: Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services in Server 2012 Error 0x800070002; Active Directory
Certificate Services (AD CS) Definition
http://searchwindowsserver.techtarget.com/definition/Active-Directory-Certificate-Services- AD-CS

QUESTION 4
You are about to promote a server running the Windows Server 2012 R2 operating system to domain controller.
The domain is currently running at the Windows Server 2008 domain functional level.
Your account is a member of the Domain Admins group.
Which additional groups should your account be a member of to ensure that the environment is appropriately configured
for this domain controller running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose two. Each answer forms part of a complete
solution.)
A. Schema Admins
B. Enterprise Admins
C. Account Operators
D. Server Operators
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports
that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a kernel-mode driver only if the
kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver
development and non-automated testing.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q5Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs. Not C. Developer would not
be able to test the driver as needed. Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to
test
the driver as needed and some file loss.
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134246.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/hardware/ff547565(v=vs.85).aspx

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 has an IPv6 scope named
Scope1.
You implement an additional DHCP server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to provide high availability for Scope1. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Install and configure Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server1 and Server2.
B. Create a scope on Server2.
C. Configure DHCP failover on Server1.
D. Install and configure Failover Clustering on Server1 and Server2.
Correct Answer: C
Overview: Configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console To configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console, right-
click a DHCP scope or right- click IPv4 and then click Configure Failover.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6Configure Failover
The Configure Failover wizard guides you through configuring DHCP failover on the selected scope.
Note: The DHCP server failover feature, available in Windows Server 2012 and later, provides the ability to have two
DHCP servers provide IP addresses and option configuration to the same subnet or scope, providing for continuous
availability of DHCP service to clients.
Incorrect:
Not A. NLB is not related to DHCP scope availability.
Not B. DHCP failover requirements include:
DHCP Scopes requirement:
At least one IPv4 DHCP scope must be configured on the primary DHCP server. The same DHCP scope ID, or an
overlapping scope, must not be configured on the failover partner.
Not D. Failover clustering is possibly, but would not minimize administration.
Reference: Deploy DHCP Failover

QUESTION 7
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
From the Group Policy Management console, you view the details of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 as
shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that the comments field of GPO1 contains a detailed description of GPO1.
What should you do?
Exhibit: * Missing*
A. From Group Policy Management, click View, and then click Customize.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, edit the properties of
contoso.com/System/Policies/{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE –ED765F065FF5}.
C. Open GPO1 in the Group Policy Management Editor, and then modify the properties of GPO1.
D. From Notepad, edit \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE
–ED765F065FF5}\gpt.ini.
Correct Answer: C
You can include comments for each Group Policy object. You can use this space to document the Group Policy object
and why its implementation is important to your environment. Commenting GPOs allows you to later use keyword filter
to
help you quickly find GPOs with matching keywords.
Adding a comment to a Group Policy object
Open the Group Policy Management Console. Expand the Group Policy Objects node.
Right-click the Group Policy object you want to comment and then click Edit . In the console tree, right-click the name of
the Group Policy object and then click Properties .
Click the Comment tab.
Type your comments in the Comment box.
Click OK
Reference: Comment a Group Policy Object
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770974.aspx

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named corp.contoso.com.
You deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
You have a rights policy template named Template1. Revocation is disabled for the template.
A user named User1 can open content that is protected by Template1 while the user is connected to the corporate
network.
When User1 is disconnected from the corporate network, the user cannot open the protected content even if the user
previously opened the content.
You need to ensure that the content protected by Template1 can be opened by users who are disconnected from the
corporate network.
What should you modify?
A. The User Rights settings of Template1
B. The templates file location of the AD RMS cluster
C. The Extended Policy settings of Template1
D. The exclusion policies of the AD RMS cluster
Correct Answer: C
*
The extended rights policy of a template controls how content licenses are to be implemented. The extended rights
policy template settings are specified by using the Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
administration site. The available settings control persistence of author rights, whether trusted browsers are supported,
license persistence within the content, and enforcement of any application-specific data.
*
You can add trust policies so that AD RMS can process licensing requests for content that was rights protected.
Reference: Extended Policy Template Information; AD RMS and Server Design http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ee221071(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1
and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role
installed.
Server2 is a file server.
Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO)
while they are connected to the internal network.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory.
B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service.
D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2.
E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2.
Correct Answer: AC
*
Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows
Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a
device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and
used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate
which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined.
*
In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the
most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device
combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices,
locations, and access times.
Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The forest
contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC. The sites contain four domain controllers. The
domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10

An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless all of the domain
controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Crate additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
Correct Answer: C
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by SiteB rather than
by SiteA.

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager
role service installed. You attempt to delete a classification property and you receive the error message as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11

You need to delete the isConfidential classification property. What should you do?
A. Delete the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
B. Disable the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
C. Set files that have an isConfidential classification property value of Yes to No.
D. Clear the isConfidential classification property value of all files.
Correct Answer: A
You would have to delete the classification rule in order to delete the classification property.

QUESTION 12
Your network contans one active directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You perform daily backups of the data on Server1 to microsoft azure.
You need to restore the data from the 1st backup of Server1 to Server2.
What should you do first?
A. On Server2, install the azure backup agent.
B. In the domain, add server1 to the backup operators group.
C. From the azure management portal, modify the configuration of the backup vault.
D. On Server2, install the windows server backup feature.
Correct Answer: A
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/backup-azure-restore-windows- server/#recover-to-an-
alternate-machine

QUESTION 13
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the ocsetup.exe command
C. the setup.exe command
D. the Install-Module cmdlet
Correct Answer: A
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:ServerGui- Shell /featurename:Server-
Gui-Mgmt

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This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012
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tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services,
and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge
necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

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Exam 70-463: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-463.aspx

Skills measured

  • Design and implement a data warehouse (10–15%)
  • Extract and transform data (20–25%)
  • Load data (25–30%)
  • Configure and deploy SSIS solutions (20–25%)
  • Build data quality solutions (15–20%)

Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-463 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to five servers.
The package must meet the following requirements:
.NET Common Language Runtime (CLR) integration in SQL Server must not be enabled.
The Connection Managers used in the package must be configurable without editing and redeploying the package.
The deployment procedure must be automated as much as possible.
Performance must be maximized.
You need to set up a deployment strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
E. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe
utility.
H. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of
development effort.
What should you use?
A. Express on task
B. Data Cleansing transformation
C. Fuzzy Lookup transformation
D. Term Lookup transformation
E. Data Profiling task
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse
every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used
the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest-
matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading
performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment Model.
The project will be deployed to an SSIS catalog folder where Environments have already been created. You need to
deploy the project.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow,
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: M

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse. The
package consists of several data flow tasks.
The package experiences intermittent errors in the data flow tasks.
If any data flow task fails, all package error information must be captured and written to a SQL Server table by using an
OLE DB connection manager.
You need to ensure that the package error information is captured and written to the table.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow.
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) data flow to load sales transactions from a source system
into a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. One of the columns in the data source is named
ProductCode.
Some of the data to be loaded will reference products that need special processing logic in the data flow.
You need to enable separate processing streams for a subset of rows based on the source product code.
Which Data Flow transformation should you use?
A. Script Component
B. Audit
C. Destination Assistant
D. Data Conversion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other
tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have
their TransactionOption property set to Supported.
You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes.
What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137749.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en
us/library/microsoft.sqlserver.dts.runtime.dtstransactionoption.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table
contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Partition the fact tables by day.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Join the two fact tables.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are designing an Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) solution that loads data into dimension tables. The ETL
process involves many transformation steps.
You need to ensure that the design can provide:
Auditing information for compliance and business user acceptance Tracking and unique identification of records for
troubleshooting and error correction
What should you do?
A. Develop a Master Data Services (MDS) solution.
B. Develop a Data Quality Services (DQS) solution.
C. Create a version control repository for the ETL solution.
D. Develop a custom data lineage solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are designing a fact table in a SQL Server database.
The fact table must meet the following requirements:
Include a columnstore index.
Allow users to choose up to 10 dimension tables and up to five facts at one time.
Maximize performance of queries that aggregate measures by using any of the 10 dimensions.
Support billions of rows.
Use the most efficient design strategy.
You need to design the fact table to meet the requirements. What should you do? (More than one answer choice may
achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns.
B. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
measure columns.
C. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns and the measure columns.
D. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on only
the measure columns.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
To support the implementation of new reports, Active Directory data will be downloaded to a SQL Server database by
using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2012 package.
The following requirements must be met: All the user information for a given Active Directory group must be downloaded
to a SQL Server table. The download process must traverse the Active Directory hierarchy recursively.
You need to configure the package to meet the requirements by using the least development effort.
Which item should you use?
A. Script task
B. Script component configured as a transformation
C. Script component configured as a source
D. Script component configured as a destination
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources.
One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors.
Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination.
You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement.
Which transformation types should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Slowly Changing Dimension
B. pivot
C. Lookup
D. Union All
E. Merge
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to read and write data from a Windows Azure SQL
Database database to a server that runs SQL Server 2012.
The connection will be used by data flow tasks in multiple SSIS packages. The address of the target Windows Azure
SQL Database database will be provided by a project parameter.
You need to create a solution to meet the requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort and
maximizing data flow performance.
What should you do?
A. Use an SSIS Script task that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
B. Use an SSIS Script transformation that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
C. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) function that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data,
deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
D. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) stored procedure that uses the custom assembly to parse the
text data, deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices acts as a gateway between clients and servers?
A. WINS server
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. DNS server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the
following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a
communication channel.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time?
A. Network log
B. Baseline
C. Flow data
D. Interface statistics
Correct Answer: B
To successfully baseline a network it is important to consider two functions; performance at protocol level and
performance at application level. There are many significant metrics to consider at the protocol level, but only a few
which are critical. The most important is bandwidth utilization compared with bandwidth availability. The most likely
cause of poor network performance is insufficient bandwidth. Trending bandwidth utilization allows you to recognize
problem areas, provide enough bandwidth to reach performance objectives, and predict future capacity requirements.
Changes in bandwidth utilization patterns also provide a clear indication of network usage alterations, such as a change
in end-user behavior, or the unauthorized addition of an application.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following wireless parameters may need to be modified when a new cordless telephone is installed?
A. Encryption type
B. SSID
C. IP address
D. Channel
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
Correct Answer: B
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the
Earth\\’s surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in
common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will
have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
Correct Answer: A
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every
computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a
management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs,
as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

QUESTION 7
A company has a remote access VPN and wants to ensure that if a username and password are compromised, the
corporate network will remain secure. Which of the following will allow the company to achieve its security goal?
A. Posture assessment
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS+
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network administrator wants to perform a test to see if any systems are passing clear text through the network. Which
of the following would be used?
A. Social engineering
B. Packet sniffing
C. Rogue access point
D. Man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is tasked with rewiring a CAT5e SOHO network with 10 existing computers. The users are currently
running at 100 Mbps and would like to be upgraded to 1000 Mbps. Which of the following should the technician do
FIRST?
A. Upgrade the existing computers
B. Purchase a new 802.11ac access point and install.
C. Install CAT6 wiring for the SOHO network
D. Verify the network cards can support 1Gbps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?
A. Cable has been looped too many times.
B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C. Cable is too warm.
D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.
Correct Answer: D
Cat 5 is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks
such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-
TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

QUESTION 11
An 802.11b wireless network has a maximum data rate of:
A. 11 Mbps.
B. 20 Mbps.
C. 28 Mbps.
D. 54 Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all network
devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC adapter. Which of the
following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of the VoIP system? (Select
THREE).
A. WEP
B. PoE
C. VLANs
D. SSL VPN
E. IDS
F. QoS
Correct Answer: BCF
As customer don\\’t want to use Ac adapter so Power over Ethernet is best option (PoE) as in this switch provide power
to phones.Phones will transfer their power requirement via cdp to vlan assigned.And Qos provide the voice packet
priority over the data packets to avoid jitter.

QUESTION 13
Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-
house support.
Which of the following is the BEST choice?
A. Wide Area Network
B. NAT
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: C
Virtual PBX, a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, fax- mail, and ACD queues
with no customer installed equipment.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are considered AAA authentication methods? (Select TWO).
A. Kerberos
B. Radius
C. MS-CHAP
D. TACACS+
E. 802.1X
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
There has been an increase in Help Desk tickets related to web portal user accounts being locked out. Which of the
following resources would be used to analyze the issue?
A. Router logs
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Firewall logs
D. Application logs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall for both DNS and eDNS.
Which of the following default ports would need to be opened on the firewall? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 23
B. TCP 53
C. TCP 123
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can
be used for two or more networking cards?
A. NIC bonding
B. Proxy server
C. Firewall ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A user reports that they are unable to connect to the network. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that the
user has an IP address/subnet mask combination of 192.168.204.255/24. The default gateway for the network is
192.168.204.254.
Which of the following could the user\\’s IP address be changed to so that they could connect to the network?
A. 192.168.204.0/27
B. 192.168.204.1/27
C. 192.168.204.112/24
D. 192.168.204.254/24
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks?
A. Host-based
B. Signature-based
C. Network-based
D. Behavior-based
Correct Answer: B
Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences known to be malicious.
A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and understand if you know what
network behavior you\\’re trying to identify.

QUESTION 20
A user is unable to open up websites on the Internet from a browser. The administrator determines that the workstation
can ping its local gateway, but not the remote web server. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the
problem MOST likely exist?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Session
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN\\’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client
computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers
use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP?
A. LDAP
B. HTTPS
C. SIP
D. SCP
Correct Answer: C
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling communications protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.

QUESTION 23
Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network\\’s wireless infrastructure is
comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used
exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their
devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as
they move between buildings?
Building A Building B Building C Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption:
WPA2 SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
Correct Answer: D
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is
different so the user has to manually authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings.
If the SSID\\’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and he will get automatic connectivity.

QUESTION 24
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the
following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
Correct Answer: CD
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible
that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the
important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.

QUESTION 25
A network has a large number of users who connect for short periods of time and the network needs to maximize the
number of devices that can be configured using DHCP. Which of the following should be configured to solve this issue?
A. Increase the number of reservations
B. Increase exclude list
C. Decrease lease times
D. Decrease the scope
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following protocols occurs at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
A. ISDN
B. IPX
C. GRE
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
A technician is troubleshooting a problem where data packets are being corrupted. Which of the following connectivity
problems should the technician check?
A. Attenuation
B. Latency
C. Crosstalk
D. External interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Users in several departments are reporting connectivity problems. The technician examines the computer and finds the
following settings. The IP address is 10.0.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The default gateway is 10.0.1.1 and
the DNS server is 10.0.0.15. A user can connect to the internet but not servers on other internal subnets. The technician
is not able to connect with a server with an IP of 10.0.2.25.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Default gateway
B. Duplicate IP address
C. Wrong DNS
D. Subnet mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following commands would be used to identify how many hops a data packet makes before reaching its
final destination?
A. route
B. netstat
C. traceroute
D. ping 127.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to access most
network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this functionality?
A. RADIUS
B. Single sign on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B
Single sign-on (SSO)is a session/user authentication process that permits a user to enter one name and password in
order to access multiple applications. The process authenticates the user for all the applications they have been given
rights to and eliminates further prompts when they switch applications during a particular session.

QUESTION 31
Which of the following do 802.11 networks use to handle packet collisions from multiple nodes?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSU/DSU
C. Ethernet Tokens
D. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods,
and preventing real attacks on the production network?
A. Evil twin
B. Honeypot
C. DMZ
D. Honeynet
Correct Answer: B
In computer terminology, a honeypot is a trap set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at
unauthorized use of information systems.

QUESTION 33
Which of the following can determine the last time an address lease was renewed on a network device?
A. System log
B. Packet sniffer
C. Time domain reflectometer
D. Stateful packet filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to
power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of
the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
Correct Answer: B
The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

QUESTION 35
Which of the following transmission methods do DHCP enabled devices use to request an IP address?
A. Broadcast
B. Directed broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A network administrator is configuring PXE boot to reimage a computer lab.
Which of the following must be configured on the existing DHCP server to specify the IP address of the imaging server
from which the clients must boot?
A. Scope
B. Reservation
C. Option
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the
active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always
use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not
need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 38
A SOHO client has tasked Joe, a technician, with setting up a basic SOHO network to support four laptops and one
desktop PC. The client would also like to have a basic wireless network to use for internal devices only that is secure.
Given the list of requirements, which of the following devices would Joe need to purchase for his client? (Select TWO).
A. IDS
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. WAP
E. UTM device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address
settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
Correct Answer: D
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view
information about the configured network interfaces.

QUESTION 40
A computer has lost network connectivity. The network technician determines the network cable and the cable drop are
both good. Which of the following would the technician use to test the computer\\’s NIC?
A. Cable certifier
B. Throughput tester
C. Loopback plug
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: C

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New Microsoft Certification 70-774 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module.
What capability does the module provide?
A. Outputting a file to a network location.
B. Performing interactive debugging of a Python script.
C. Saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file.
D. Visualizing univariate and multivariate summaries by using Python code.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You have an untrained Azure Machine Learning model that you plan to train to predict flight delays.
You need to assess the variability of the dataset and the reliability of the predictions from the model.
Which module should you use?
A. Cross-Validate Model
B. Evaluate Model
C. Tune Model Hyperparameters
D. Train Model
E. Score Model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have data about the following:
You need to predict whether a user will like a particular movie.
Which Matchbox recommender should you use?
A. Item Recommendation
B. Related Items
C. Rating Prediction
D. Related Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You plan to predict flight delays that are 30 minutes or more. You need to build a training model that accurately fits the data. The solution must minimize over fitting and minimize data leakage.
Which attribute should you remove?
A. OriginAirportID
B. DepDel
C. DepDel30
D. Carrier
E. DestAirportID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that you can compare the performance of the models and add annotations to the results.
Solution: You connect the Score Model modules from each trained model as inputs for the Evaluate Model module, and use the Execute R Script module.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. 70-774 dumps
You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Column1 is empty.
You need to omit Column1 from the dataset. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio.
You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit.
You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server.
Which SGD algorithm should you use?
A. DataParallelASGD
B. DataParallelSGD
C. ModelAveragingSGD
D. BlockMomentumSGD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Machine Learning environment.
You are evaluating whether to use R code or Python.
Which three actions can you perform by using both R code and Python in the Machine Learning environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Preprocess, cleanse, and group data.
B. Score a training model.
C. Create visualizations.
D. Create an untrained model that can be used with the Train Model module.
E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You need to remove rows that have an empty value in a specific column. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 10
You are building an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You need to transform 47 numeric columns into a set of 10 linearly uncorrelated features.
Which module should you add to the experiment?
A. Principal Component Analysis
B. K-Means Clustering
C. Normalize Data
D. Group Data into Bins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have a dataset that is missing values in a column named Column3. Column3 is correlated to two columns named Column4 and Column5. You need to improve the accuracy of the dataset, while minimizing data loss.
What should you do?
A. Replace the missing values in Column3 by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
B. Remove all of the rows that have the missing values in Column4 and Column5.
C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You need to use R code in a Transact-SQL statement to merge the repeating values 1 through 6 with Col1 in a table.
Which statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You plan to create a predictive analytics solution for credit risk assessment and fraud prediction in Azure Machine Learning. The Machine Learning workspace for the solution will be shared with other users in your organization. You will add assets to projects and conduct experiments in the workspace.
The experiments will be used for training models that will be published to provide scoring from web services.
The experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem.
You finish training the model and are ready to publish a predictive web service that will provide the users with the ability to specify the data source and the save location of the results. The model includes a Split Data module.
Which two actions should you perform to convert the Machine Learning experiment to a predictive web service? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets.
Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
You have an Execute R Script module that has one input from either a Partition and Sample module or a Web service input module.
You need to preprocess tweets by using R. The solution must meet the following requirements:
How should you complete the R code? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar panes or scroll to view content. 70-774 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
70-774 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You need to remove the bias and to identify the columns in the input dataset that have the greatest predictive power.
Which module should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate modules to the correct requirements. Each module may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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