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[2020.11] Latest updates Amazon Exam practice questions and tips

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Table of Contents:

AWS Certified Advanced Networking – Specialty: https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-advanced-networking-specialty/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon ANS-C00 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
Your organization requires strict adherence to a change control process for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2)
and VPC environments. The organization uses AWS CloudFormation as the AWS service to control and implement
changes. Which combination of three services provides an alert for changes made outside of AWS CloudFormation?
(Choose three.)
A. AWS Config
B. AWS Simple Notification Service
C. AWS CloudWatch metrics
D. AWS Lambda
E. AWS CloudFormation
F. AWS Identify and Access Management
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
A company\\’s IT Security team needs to ensure that all servers within an Amazon VPC can communicate with a list of
five approved external IPs only. The team also wants to receive a notification every time any server tries to open a
connection with a non-approved endpoint.
What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?
A. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to ALL.
Create an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter on the VPC Flow Logs log group filtered by REJECT. Create an alarm for this
metric to notify the Security team.
B. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and the specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and
link the S3 object to the GuardDuty trusted IP list. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule on all GuardDuty
findings to trigger an Amazon SNS notification to the Security team.
C. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to
REJECT. Set an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter for the log group on every event. Create an alarm for this metric to
notify the Security team.
D. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link
the S3 object to the GuardDuty threat IP list. Integrate GuardDuty with a compatible SIEM to report on every alarm from
GuardDuty.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A Network Engineer needs to create a public virtual interface on the company\\’s AWS Direct Connect connection and
only import routes which originated from the same region as the Direct Connect location What action should accomplish
this?
A. Configure a prefix-list on the customer router containing the AWS IP address ranges for the specific region.
B. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes with the 7224:8100 BGP community attribute.
C. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3.
D. Configure a filter in the console and only allow routes advertised by AWS without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An organization will be extending its existing on-premises infrastructure into the cloud. The design consists of a transit
VPC that contains stateful firewalls that will be deployed in a highly available configuration across two Availability Zones
for automatic failover.
What MUST be configured for this design to work? (Choose two.)
A. A different Autonomous System Number (ASN) for each firewall.
B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing
C. Autonomous system (AS) path prepending
D. Static routing
E. Equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP)
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
A corporate network routing table contains 624 individual RFC 1918 and public IP prefixes. You have two AWS Direct
Connect connectors. You configure a private virtual interface on both connections to a virtual private gateway. The
virtual private gateway is not currently attached to a VPC. Neither BGP session will maintain the Established state on
the customer router. The AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interfaces as Down.
What could you do to address the problem so that the AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interface as
Available?
A. Attach the virtual private gateway to a VPC and enable route propagation.
B. Filter the public IP pre? xes on the corporate network from the private virtual interface.
C. Change the BGP advertisements from the corporate network to only be a default route.
D. Attach the second virtual interface to an alternative virtual private gateway. Correct Answer: D

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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner:https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-cloud-practitioner/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon CLF-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A characteristic of edge locations is that they:
A. host Amazon EC2 instances are closer to users.
B. help lower latency and improve performance for users.
C. cache frequently changing data without reaching the origin server.
D. refresh data changes daily.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.edureka.co/community/600/what-is-an-edge-location-in-aws

QUESTION 2
The AWS Trusted Advisor checks include recommendations regarding which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Information on Amazon S3 bucket permissions
B. AWS service outages
C. Multi-factor authentication enabled on the AWS account root user
D. Available software patches
E. Number of users in the account
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/technology/trusted-advisor/best-practice-checklist/

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could
influence customer\\’s decision? (Choose two.)
A. Reduced latency to users
B. The application\\’s presentation in the local language
C. Data sovereignty compliance
D. Cooling costs in hotter climates
E. Proximity to the customer\\’s office for on-site visits
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which AWS service provides on-demand AWS security and compliance documentation?
A. AWS Directory Service
B. AWS Artifact
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. Amazon Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/artifact/#:~:text=AWS%20Artifact%20is%20your%20go,reports%20and%20select%20online%20agreements

QUESTION 5
Which Amazon RDS feature can be used to achieve high availability?
A. Multiple Availability Zones
B. Amazon Reserved Instances
C. Provisioned IOPS storage
D. Enhanced monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS
uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL,
and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon\\’s failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database
Mirroring (DBM).
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html

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AWS Certified Data Analytics – Specialty Certification:https://aws.amazon.com/certification/certified-data-analytics-specialty/

[2020.11] Popular Amazon DAS-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A retail company\\’s data analytics team recently created multiple product sales analysis dashboards for the average
selling price per product using Amazon QuickSight. The dashboards were created from .csv files uploaded to Amazon
S3. The team is now planning to share the dashboards with the respective external product owners by creating
individual users in Amazon QuickSight. For compliance and governance reasons, restricting access is a key
requirement. The product owners should view only their respective product analysis in the dashboard reports.
Which approach should the data analytics team take to allow product owners to view only their products in the
dashboard?
A. Separate the data by product and use S3 bucket policies for authorization.
B. Separate the data by product and use IAM policies for authorization.
C. Create a manifest file with row-level security.
D. Create dataset rules with row-level security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A large company has a central data lake to run analytics across different departments. Each department uses a
separate AWS account and stores its data in an Amazon S3 bucket in that account. Each AWS account uses the AWS
Glue Data Catalog as its data catalog. There are different data lake access requirements based on roles. Associate
analysts should only have read access to their departmental data. Senior data analysts can have access to multiple
departments including theirs, but for a subset of columns only.
Which solution achieves these required access patterns to minimize costs and administrative tasks?
A. Consolidate all AWS accounts into one account. Create different S3 buckets for each department and move all the
data from every account to the central data lake account. Migrate the individual data catalogs into a central data catalog
and apply fine-grained permissions to give to each user the required access to tables and databases in AWS Glue and
Amazon S3.
B. Keep the account structure and the individual AWS Glue catalogs on each account. Add a central data lake account
and use AWS Glue to catalog data from various accounts. Configure cross-account access for AWS Glue crawlers to
scan the data in each departmental S3 bucket to identify the schema and populate the catalog. Add the senior data
analysts into the central account and apply highly detailed access controls in the Data Catalog and Amazon S3.
C. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake. Use AWS Lake Formation to catalog the cross-account
locations. On each individual S3 bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls to allow senior analysts to view specific
tables and columns.
D. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake and configure a central S3 bucket. Use an AWS Lake
Formation blueprint to move the data from the various buckets into the central S3 bucket. On each individual bucket,
modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation
permissions to add fine-grained access controls for both associate and senior analysts to view specific tables and
columns.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Once a month, a company receives a 100 MB .csv file compressed with gzip. The file contains 50,000 property listing
records and is stored in Amazon S3 Glacier. The company needs its data analyst to query a subset of the data for a
specific vendor.
What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. Load the data into Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon S3 Select.
B. Query the data from Amazon S3 Glacier directly with Amazon Glacier Select.
C. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Athena.
D. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/athena/faqs/

QUESTION 4
A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing
the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of
about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data
analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly
reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned
about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution.
Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements?
A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records
from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift
Spectrum to join data that is older than 13 months.
B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with
additional storage capacity.
C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to
quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3.
D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to
crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster
using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the
same AWS Glue Data Catalog.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A financial company uses Apache Hive on Amazon EMR for ad-hoc queries. Users are complaining of sluggish
performance.
A data analyst notes the following:
Approximately 90% of the queries are submitted 1 hour after the market opens. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
utilization never exceeds 10%.
Which solution would help address the performance issues?
A. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to
scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric.
B. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic
scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric.
C. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to
scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric.
D. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the
instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic
scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates HP hpe6-a41 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A company has two ArubaOS switches, Switch1 and Switch2. Switch1 will be the commander for a new Virtual
Switching Framework (VSF) fabric. Switch2 is a new switch that will be the standby member. The network administrator
wants to configure the proper settings on the standby member interface before the standby member joins the fabric.
What should the administrator do before the switches are joined in the VSF fabric?
A. Configure the interface settings on Switch2. Then enable VSF on Switch2.
B. Enable VSF on Switch2. Then configure the interface settings on Switch2.
C. Provision member2 on Switch1. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch1.
D. Provision member2 on Switch1 and member1 on Switch2. Then configure the member2 interface settings on
Switch2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which standard for wireless connectivity supports both 2.4GHz and 5GHz?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is one benefit that Aruba AirWave can provide to a customer with ArubaOS switches?
A. It can audit switch firmware (software) and automate updates.
B. It can enable the switches to provide mobility controller functions for connected Instant APs (IAPs).
C. It can provide centralized authentication and authorization for users who log in to the switch CLI.
D. It can program the switches to dynamically adjust QoS settings to prioritize Skype for Business traffic.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam questions q4

Based on the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. An issue causes the spanning tree to converge and re-converge again and again.
B. Interface 25 on Switch-1 is incorrectly configured as an STP edge port and cause a loop to occur.
C. Interface 25 on Switch-1 does not support the correct VLANs and prevents the interface from receiving the correct
STP role.
D. Switch-1 and another switch are configured with the same spanning-tree priority and cause the root election to occur
again and again.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam questions q5

A network administrator installs a new aggregation and access layer in a campus network. All users in this area belong
to the same VLAN. The administrator plugs the switches into the network with the factory default configurations. Which
protocol must the administrator configure to prevent broadcast storms?
A. MSTP
B. LLDP
C. OSPF
D. LACP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company needs a switch that supports 10GbE and 40GbE for its mid-sized campus. The company prefers stackable
or fixed-port switches over modular switches. Which ArubaOS switch series best meet these needs?
A. Aruba 2530
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 3810
D. Aruba 5400R
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Exhibit 1.

lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam question q7

Exhibit 2.

lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam question q7-1

Assume that Switch-2 is correctly configured for OSPF.
Which additional step must the administrator take to enable Switch-1 to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 to Switch-2?
A. Set a router ID on Switch-1.
B. Configure a route to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 on Switch-1.
C. Add Switch-2\\’s router ID to Switch-1\\’s OSPF neighbor list.
D. Enable OSPF on VLAN 2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam questions q8

Endpoint A sends broadcast ARP requests. Where are these requests received?
A. at EndpointC
B. at EndpointB
C. at EndpointB, at EndpointC, and at EndpointD
D. at EndpointB and at EndpointC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to manage Aruba 3810 Series switches deployed at the campus
access layer. How does AirWave determine which configuration template to apply to these switches?
A. based on their group
B. based on their lowest level subfolder
C. based on their top-level folder
D. based on the global group associated with their group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is a valid setup for a Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric?
A. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member
B. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and two 5406R zl2 switches as standby members
C. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and two 5412R zl2 switches as standby members
D. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a41 exam questions q11

A network administrator views the configuration files on an ArubaOS switch and sees the output in the exhibit. The
administrator enters this command:
Switch# boot system flash primary config config2 After the switch boots, the administrator makes some configuration
changes and saves the configuration with the write memory command. The administrator then enters this command:
Switch# boot
After the switch boots, the configuration changes just made are not present. How can the administrator restore the
configuration with the changes?
A. Use the boot set-default command to configure the switch to use the secondary software. Then reboot the switch.
B. Reboot the switch and interrupt the boot process. Find the temporary file with the configuration changes and apply
that file to the startup-config.
C. Rename the config2 file to config1. Then reboot the switch.
D. Use the startup-default command to configure the switch to use the config2 file with the primary software. Then
reboot the switch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is a requirement for links to successfully participate in an aggregated link?
A. that links have the spanning tree protocol disabled
B. that links use the same speed and duplex mode
C. that links use the same media type and are untagged
D. that links are untagged and are associated with the same VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which ArubaOS switch feature treats multiple ports as one logical port?
A. OSPF
B. STP
C. VSF
D. link aggregation
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You are creating a logical array on an HPE ProLiant server. The customer asks you to use drives with different
capacities in a single array. What should you explain to this customer?
A. Using drives with different capacities in a single array increases the chance of disk failure
B. The extra capacity of the larger drives will not be utilized
C. The process to create the array will fail, and the server will not boot
D. The RAID level will be set at RAID 0 automatically
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which HPE tool can securely erase the current content of a server and help with the consistent and easy operating system
installation?
A. HPE System Insight Manager
B. HPE Intelligent Management Center (IMC)
C. HPE OneView
D. HPE Intelligent Provisioning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are provisioning a new virtual disk group on an MSA storage system. Which disk group parameters must you specify
when creating the vdisk? (Choose three.)
A. RAID level
B. LUN number
C. type
D. cache size
E. name
F. volume size
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting an HPE ProLiant rack-mount server. You need to collect event data from the server, even when
it is not operational. Which tool should you use?
A. Insight Online
B. InfoSight
C. OS Event Viewer
D. Integrated Management Log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to know if the storage solution you proposed contains components that are compatible with existing
products currently in the data center. Which HPE resource should you use to provide this information?
A. Storage Size
B. One Config Advanced (OCA)
C. One Config Simple (OCS)
D. Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge (SPOCK)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power
distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space
efficiency?
A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails
B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance
C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front
D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A customer has implemented an HPE ProLiant server with internal storage and needs to monitor the array health status.
Which management application can the customer use to discover errors quickly and minimize the possible downtime?
A. Insight Online
B. Smart Storage Administrator
C. Intelligent Management Center
D. InfoSight
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8lead4pass hpe0-v14 exam questions q8

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A customer needs to improve the throughput performance of iSCSI traffic on their Layer 2 switch. Which feature should the customer implement at the switch level?
A. Jumbo frames
B. Oversubscription
C. SMB Direct
D. Remote Data Memory Access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A customer needs to deploy an application on a newly-installed HPE ProLiant server, but they report that the server is
not online. They call you for remote support. The IP address on the production network cannot be reached. You are
evaluating the probable root causes of this issue. According to the troubleshooting methodology, what are the next two
steps? (Select two)
A. Remote console into the ToR switch to check the server\\’s port configuration.
B. Log in to iLO to see if the server hardware and NIC are online and configured correctly.
C. Use OneView to see f the server firmware is up-to-date
D. Run insight Diagnostics on the Server
E. Use Microsoft Remote Desktop or VNC to check the server\\’s NIC and IP address configuration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:lead4pass hpe0-v14 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass hpe0-v14 exam questions q11-1

QUESTION 12
Why is RAID 6 the best option for a large RAID set for archive storage on large-capacity drives?
A. to reduce risk during volume rebuild
B. to increase write performance on the volume
C. to maximize the capacity of the volume
D. to reduce drive wear
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are onsite at a customer location to install a new network switch. The customer wants users to be able to manage
the switch through the IP network. How should you connect the switch to the network?
A. Configure multiple user IDs or roles for the console connection
B. Configure the management IP address on the switch and enable Telnet or SSH access
C. Use a dedicated console cable to create a dedicated management network for every user
D. Connect the switch to the network by using the serial cable that ships with the switch
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which HPE Server family is purpose-built for HPC workloads, Big Data Analytics, object storage, and enterprise service
provider needs?
A. HPE ProLiant DL servers
B. HPE Apollo server
C. HPE Synergy servers
D. HPE Edgeline servers
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/apollo-4000.html

QUESTION 2
Which industry-standard protocol is typically used to communicate with remote resources on mobile applications?
A. NFS
B. HTTP
C. STP
D. TRILL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: http://ms15.voip.edu.tw/~sandra/paper/CwC.pdf

QUESTION 3
A customer is considering a refresh of their ToR switches because they need 25 GbE connectivity. Which switch should you recommend?
A. FlexFabric 5945
B. FlexFabric 5940
C. FlexFabric 5980
D. FlexFabric 5710
Correct Answer: A
Explaining: High-density 100GbE/40GbE/25GbE/10GbE spine/top-of-rack (ToR) connectivity Reference:
https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getmobile.aspx?docname=a00049249enw

QUESTION 4
A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?
A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter
B. an installed iLo Advanced license
C. Secure Boot enabled
D. Two-factor authentication enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which HPE tool is used to access 3PAR performance information?
A. NinjaCrawler
B. SAF Collect
C. SAF Analyze
D. NinjaStars
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A customer is running a virtualized application with the data stored on their server\\’s local storage. As the storage
space is getting full, they are looking into a new storage system. Their IT generalist would like to use a single
management interface for the new solution.
Which solution should you recommend to the customer?
A. HPE Nimble HF20
B. HPE MSA 2052
C. HPE SimpliVity 380
D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf

QUESTION 7
A customer has expressed concerns about the security of using RESTful API to do a survey against their existing
infrastructure. What should you say about the REST client to alleviate the customer\\’s concerns?
A. It uses SNMP v2.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It uses SNMP v3.
D. It uses WBEM.
Correct Answer: C
It defines the User-based Security Model (USM), providing for both Authenticated and Private (encrypted) SNMP
messages Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3584

QUESTION 8
A customer is requesting new leaf switches for their 40-server virtualization farm. Their servers are currently equipped
with 25GbE NICs. Which switch family should you recommend?
A. HPE FlexFabric 5710 24SFP+ 6S+
B. HPE FlexFabric 12916E Switch with QSFP28 HB modules
C. HPE FlexFabric 5945 48SFP28 8QSFP28
D. HPE FlexFabric 5710 48XGT 2QSF28
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/networking/networking-switches/hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series/p/1010907030

QUESTION 9
HPE OneView can be used to provision volumes on which HPE solutions? (Choose two.)
A. HPE Nimble
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE XP
D. HPE SimpliVity
E. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
Correct Answer: AE
HPE OneView automation provisions storage volumes, zones the fiber channel SAN and attaches 3PAR StoreServ
storage to the server profile. Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/getpdf.aspx/4AA4-8543ENW.pdf
https://www.karma-group.ru/upload/iblock/255/HPE%20OneView.pdf

QUESTION 10
A customer is considering purchasing an application that requires a highly-available NUMA platform that will scale up to
16 processors. They ask you which HPE compute solution will meet their needs. Which solution should you
recommend?
A. HPE BladeSystem
B. HPE ProLiant DL
C. HPE Synergy
D. HPE Superdome Flex
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na-a00041133en_us

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
During Synergy solution onboarding, the customer asks about a firmware overview of all the computing modules at once.
Click where you can access the information.
Hot Area:lead4pass hpe0-s57 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 12
During an HPE SimpliVity solution presentation, a potential customer asks about the HPE SimpliVity RapidDR option in
the Bill of Material. How should you respond?
A. It allows configuring a high-availability solution between two sites for automatic failover and fallback in disaster
recovery situations.
B. It is required for a multi-site HPE SimpliVity configuration to send VM backups to remote clusters.
C. It enables orchestration for site-to-site recovery to improve application availability during planned or unplanned
events.
D. It is a requirement to guarantee the 1-minute restore of a 1TB virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D
HPE guarantees the ability to restore a 1TB VM within one minute, meaning that the customer saved approx. 70% of
time Reference: https://veracompadria.com/en/simplivity-demystified/

QUESTION 13
A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in
two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their
management network. How should you reply?
A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects to their management
network with two uplinks.
B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect to their management
network.
C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\\’s workload is not supported.
D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their
management network.
Correct Answer: A

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