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QUESTION 1:

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?

A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.

C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.

D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

QUESTION 2:

Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?

A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.

B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP.

C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.

D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP.

QUESTION 3:

Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)

A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.

B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.

C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.

D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.

E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

QUESTION 4:

A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address

when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

A. 200.200.1.1

B. 150.150.10.11

C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system

D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system

QUESTION 5:

Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose three.)

A. CLIENT_DATA

B. SERVER_DATA

C. HTTP_REQUEST

D. HTTP_RESPONSE

E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED

F. SERVER_SELECTED

G. SERVER_CONNECTED

QUESTION 6:

Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server\’s destination port were not 443?

A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server\’s port was not port 443.

B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.

C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended.

D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port
443.

QUESTION 7:

Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)

A. The bigtop command displays the status.

B. Only the active system\’s configuration screens are active.

C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt.

D. The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.

QUESTION 8:

The incoming client IP address is 205.12.45.52. The last five connections have been sent to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the virtual server and pool definitions and the statistics shown in the graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80

B. 10.10.20.2:80

C. 10.10.20.3:80

D. 10.10.20.4:80

E. 10.10.20.5:80

QUESTION 9:

Which statement is true regarding failover?

A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.

B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.

C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.

D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.

QUESTION 10:

Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use.

A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.

B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.

C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.

D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes.

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor

B. inherit the node\’s monitor

C. configure a default monitor

D. assign a monitor to the specific member

E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

QUESTION 12:

How is MAC masquerading configured?

A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.

B. Specify the desired MAC address for each selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems.

D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

QUESTION 13:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:ACCECACECACABCADEAC

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Use the latest 010-151 dumps to help you pass the Cisco DCTECH certification exam

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Certification: CCT Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $125 USD
Number of Questions: 65-75
010-151 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html (Total Questions: 136 Q&A)

Cisco 010-151 exam questions online practice test:

Question 1:

Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. iSCSI

D. FCoE

Question 2:

Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?

A. recovery

B. redundancy

C. resiliency

D. security

E. storage

Question 3:

The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?

A. 10 Mb/s

B. 100 Mb/s

C. 1000 Mb/s

D. 10000 Mb/s

Question 4:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Question 5:

What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?

A. 100 Mb/s

B. 1 Gb/s

C. 10 Gb/s

D. 100 Gb/s

Question 6:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Question 7:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Question 8:

What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A. Amber

B. Red

C. Blinking amber

D. Blinking red

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?

A. HDD 1

B. TFP Module

C. SuperCap Module

D. CPU 2

E. CMOS Battery

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

A. A is the power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is the system status LED; D is the network link activity LED.

B. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

C. A is the system status LED; B is the network link activity LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

D. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the identification button and LED; D is the power button and power status LED.

Question 11:

Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors

C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Question 12:

Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548P

B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP

C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

D. Cisco Nexus 5596T

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?

A. MDS 9509

B. MDS 9513

C. MDS 9710

D. MDS 9506

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?

A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server

B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server

C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server

D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Question 15:

Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?

A. first-generation supervisor module

B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)

C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)

D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:CBBBDAECCDACDCCC

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4A0-N01 Dumps updated | Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials

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4A0-N01 Exam Details:

Vendor: Nokia

Exam Code: 4A0-N01

Exam Name: Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam

Certification: Nuage Networks Professional – Software-Defined Datacenter (NNP SD-DC)

Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A

Exam Duration: 90 Minutes

Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45-minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.

Number of Questions: 40

Language: English

Price: $125 US

4A0-N01 Free dumps online reading:

QUESTION 1:

To auto-instantiate services on a 7750 DCI, which protocol needs to be enabled between the 7750 SR and VSD?

A. SNMP
B. Openflow
C. XMPP
D. BGP EVPN

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What statement regarding VSD user management is TRUE?

A. We can create CMS user groups for each enterprise.
B. Each enterprise user belongs to only one user group.
C. Open LDAP and Active Directory can be integrated into VSD.
D. LDAP integration is configured at the VSD global level, and it is not a configurable enterprise.

Correct Answer: B

Easy as adding them to a specific user group.

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/target/using/administer/manage-users/enterprise/ property-channel.html

QUESTION 3:

What statement about stateful ACL entries is FALSE?

A. They can track both TCP and UDP flows.
B. They can be created in either ingress or egress directions.
C. A packet in the direction of the stateful ACL rules will automatically create a “related” rule in the reverse direction.
D. The automatically created rules will not go away until the ACL is manually deactivated and reactivated.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

What statement about Open vSwitch is TRUE?

A. It is a standard virtual switch that can run on any operating system.
B. It can only be configured using Openflow by an SDN controller.
C. It provides tunneling mechanisms, for example, VXLAN.
D. It supports most of the open protocols, for example, OSPF, and BGP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

Which of the following is NOT a goal of NFV?

A. Reduce equipment cost
B. Faster time-to-market for new services
C. Efficiency through automation
D. Increase network bandwidth

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

What statement regarding the VRS-G is FALSE?

A. The VRS-G is the software VXLAN/VLAN gateway of the Nuage VCS solution.
B. The VRS-G is deployed on a hypervisor, following the same deployment requirements as a regular VRS.
C. Virtual machines created on the hypervisor are attached to access ports on VRS-G.
D. The network ports on VRS-G point towards the Nuage overlay VXLAN network.

Correct Answer: B

This permits the bridging of the hypervisor-focused overlay networking and physical devices in the data center.

Reference: https://jujucharms.com/nuage-vrsg/

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the diagram.

What is the correct sequence of events for a VM to be instantiated, and for its required network connectivity to be created with the Nuage VCS solution?

a. Network domain and policy templates are defined on VSD.
b. VSC queries VSD on network service and policies.
c. VSD provides VSC with network service and policies.
d. VRS agent informs VSC of the new VM placement.
e. VSC deploys policy to applicable VRS agents.
f. VM instantiated on the hypervisor.

A. a->b->c->d->e->f
B. a->b->c->f->d->-e
C. a->f->d->b->c->-e
D. f->d->b->a>c->-e

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following is a solution to create virtual machines in which the server runs the hypervisor as a specialized operating system and, as a consequence, there is no need for a conventional operating system?

A. Kernel
B. Container
C. Native hypervisor
D. Hosted hypervisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

What is the difference between host vPort and bridge vPort?

A. A host vPort is provisioned on VRS-G, while a bridge vPort is provisioned on VSG.
B. A host vPort is provisioned for VLAN traffic, while a bridge vPort is for VxLAN traffic.
C. A host vPort only supports one VLAN, while a bridge vPort can be configured with multiple VLANs.
D. A host vPort requires static MAC address configuration, while a bridge vPort learns MAC addresses dynamically.

Correct Answer: A

Bridge vPort hosted in Nuage VSG/VSA Gateways Software, VRS and VRS-G hosted vPort

Reference: https://matscloud.blogspot.com/2017/06/nuage-networks-vsp-deep-dive.html

QUESTION 10:

What statement is TRUE regarding multiple virtual IP addresses assigned to a single vPort?

A. The virtual IP addresses can be in a different subnet than the VM interface IP address.
B. All virtual IP addresses of a vPort must be in the same subnet.
C. One of the virtual IP addresses can be the same as the VM interface IP address.
D. Every virtual IP address must be associated with a virtual MAC, which differs from the VM interface MAC address.

Correct Answer: A

If you have only one public IP address available, and you want to host multiple servers, use aVIP.

QUESTION 11:

What is NOT a component of VSD?

A. Neutron
B. Statistics Engine
C. Policy Management Engine
D. RESTful API

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.nuagenetworks.net/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/
PR1507013354EN_NN_RedH_Open_Hybrid_Clouds_PartnerSolutionBrief.pdf

QUESTION 12:

What statement about statistics rules on Nuage VCS is FALSE?

A. Users can define statistics rules for domain/zones/subnets/vPorts. The rule applied to the most granular object is the one used.

B. Statistics are collected in an Elasticsearch statistics engine and are aggregated over hours, days, and months.

C. Statistics are pushed from VRS up to VSC, which in turn sends them to the VSD stats engine.

D. When a TCA threshlod is exceeded, an event is displayed in the UI and a message is sent on the JMS bus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is NOT a function of the VSC?

A. CMS integration
B. SDN controller
C. BGP federation
D. XMPP communication with VSD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/networking/sdn/definitions/nuage-networks-vsc/

……

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F5 F50-531 Dumps | Preparing for the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x Exam

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QUESTION 1:

If a client\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?

A. The connection request is not processed.
B. The connection request is sent to a topology server.
C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member.
D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members.
whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?

A. That support is never available.
B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs.
C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN.
D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. CLI access to the serial console port
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 4:

A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection.
D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?

A. the system\’s dossier
B. the system\’s hostname
C. the system\’s base license
D. the system\’s purchase order number

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D, and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
F. It cannot be determined with the information given.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)

A. SNAT\’s are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Profile definition.
C. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D. SNAT\’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?

A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system.

B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.

C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?

A. host names
B. system clocks
C. profile definitions
D. VLAN fail-safe settings
E. MAC masquerade addresses

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor
B. inherit the node\’s monitor
C. configure a default monitor
D. assign a monitor to the specific member
E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member, or node.
B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test.
C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s members passed the test.
D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool\’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13:

When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?

A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception.
D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server.

Correct Answer: B

……

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The latest updated Cisco 300-435 exam dumps with VCE and PDF

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QUESTION 1

The Cisco DNA Center Sites API must be used to add a device to a site, but only the site name is available. Which API
call must be used to retrieve the site identifier so that the device can be properly added to the network?

A. /dna/intent/api/site/siteId
B. /dna/intent/api/site
C. /dna/intent/api/v1/site
D. /dna/intent/api/v1/site/siteName

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-blogs/welcome-to-the-dna-center-api-support-community/bap/3663632

QUESTION 2

Which tag is required when establishing a YANG-push subscription with a Cisco IOS XE device?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/1612/b_1612_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 3

cisco 300-435 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco
IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible “create int” task?

A. with_items: “{{intlist}}”
B. with_parent: “{{intlist}}”
C. with_list: “{{intlist}}”
D. with_groups: “{{intlist}}”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer needs to create a new network using the Meraki API. Which HTTP action to the URL

A. GET
B. POST
C. PUT
D. ADD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://httpstatuses.com/201

QUESTION 5

Which path do calls begin with to implement Cisco DNA Center Intent APIs?

A. /intent
B. /dna/v1
C. /dna/api/intent/v1/
D. /dna/system/api/v1/

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/dna-center/#!device-provisioning/endpoints-and-methods-used

QUESTION 6

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the Ansible playbook to apply the
configuration to an interface on a Cisco IOS XE device. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-435 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-435 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file
named “device_status.py”. The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of
Do commands insert the project into Git?

cisco 300-435 exam questions q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.github.com/en/github/importing-your-projects-to-github/adding-an-existing-project-to-github-usingthe-command-line

QUESTION 8

A configuration has been made to add to every switch port a new port description. The script worked initially, but after a few seconds, an HTTP 429 status code was received. What causes this error message from the Meraki cloud?

A. The wrong API key is used to query the data.
B. The rate limit of the Cisco Meraki API is exceeded.
C. The API key has expired.
D. The device goes offline while you poll the API dashboard.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Developers-APIs/my-API-Limit-exceed-and-key-is-not-working/td-p/64034

QUESTION 9

Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?

A. configuration changes are automatically activated
B. uses the YANG data models to communicate
C. supports JSON and data encoding
D. validates the content of a candidate datastore

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/169/b_169_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.html

QUESTION 10

cisco 300-435 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The
three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error?

A. The API user in Cisco DNA does not have to write privileges on the devices.
B. The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15.
C. The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format.
D. Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional
Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.

cisco 300-435 exam questions q11

A. bfd/synced/sessions?

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Real-Time_Monitoring_APIs/BFD

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-435 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging
application when a rogue AP is detected on the network. The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the
alert. A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:
send_to_application(message)
The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val. Which Python
Does the code complete the task?

cisco 300-435 exam questions q12-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

For numbers in the range, a value is required for the application to send the alert. Besides are also included.

QUESTION 13

What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted
B. non-cacheable
C. stateless
D. implemented over HTTP
E. parameters passed in the headers

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8-0/MSE_REST_API/Guide/Cisco_MSE_REST_API_G
uide/REST_Introduction.pdf

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The latest updated Cisco 300-410 exam dumps with VCE and PDF

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Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions free online practice

QUESTION 1

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or
influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. packet switching
C. policy-based routing
D. forwarding information base

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an
IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing the configuration, the customer complained about not receiving a summary route with a specific loopback address.
Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

cisco 300-410 exam questions q2

A. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.
B. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.
C. Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.
D. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.
E. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Correct Answer: AD

When you configure an EIGRP summary route, all networks that fall within the range of your summary are suppressed
and no longer advertised on the interface. Only the summary route is advertised. But if we want to advertise a network
that has been suppressed along with the summary route then we can use leak-map feature. The below commands will
fix the configuration in this question: R1(config)#access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 R1(config)#route-map Leak-Route
permit 10 // this command will also remove the “route_map Leak-Route deny 10” command. R1(config-route-map)#match IP address 1

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the
summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

cisco 300-410 exam questions q3

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.
B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.
C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.
D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Correct Answer: C

The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.
It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed
routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:
The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to
find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet
exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.

QUESTION 4

cisco 300-410 exam questions q4
cisco 300-410 exam questions q4-1

Refer to the exhibits. All the serial links between R1, R2, and R3 have the same bandwidth. Users on the
192.168.1.0/24 networks report slow response times while they access resources on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a
traceroute is run on the path, it shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1
and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator do to fix the slowness?

A. Add a static route on R1 using the next-hop of R3.
B. Remove the static route on R1.
C. Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5.
D. Redistribute the R1 static route to EIGRP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

A. multi-paths eibgp 2
B. maximum-paths 2
C. maximum-paths ibgp 2
D. multi-paths 2

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_vpn_multipath.html

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-410 exam questions q6

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?

A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions

Correct Answer: D

The class-map NMS in the exhibit did not classify traffic into specific protocols so many packets were dropped. We
should create a class map to classify the receiving traffic. It is also a recommendation of CoPP/CPP policy:
“Developing a CPP policy starts with the classification of the control plane traffic. To that end, the control plane traffic
needs to be first identified and separated into different class maps.”
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

QUESTION 7

An engineer configured a company\’s multiple area OSPF Head Office routers and Site A Cisco routers with VRF lite.
Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone:
Head Office and Site A IP cef ip vrf ABC rd 101:101! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding abc IP address
172.16.16.X 255.255.255.252 ! router OSPF 1 vrf ABC log-adjacency-changes network 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3, 4, 5, and 7 are installed at the Site A router.
Which configuration resolves this issue?

A. configure capability vrf-lite-on Site A and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
B. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
C. configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 of
ABC
D. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the
destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

cisco 300-410 exam questions q8

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.
B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.
C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.
D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Correct Answer: C

The AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.

QUESTION 9

cisco 300-410 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. A router is receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routes in AS 690.
What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?

A. The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250.
B. The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map.
C. The route map is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3se/3850/irgxe-3se-3850-book/irg-prefix-filter.html

QUESTION 10

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

A. 20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
B. 32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
C. 20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit
D. 32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Correct Answer: A

The first 20 bits constitute a label, which can have 2^20 values. Next comes a 3-bit value called Traffic Class. It was
formerly called as experimental (EXP) field. Now it has been renamed to Traffic Class (TC). This field is used for QoS-related functions. Ingress router can classify the packet according to some criterion and assign a 3-bit value to this field. If an incoming packet is marked with some IP Precedence or DSCP value and the ingress router may use such a field to assign an FEC to the packet. The next bit is the Stack bit which is called the bottom-of-stack bit. This field is used when more than one label is assigned to a packet, as in the case of MPLS VPNs or MPLS TE. The next byte is the MPLS TTL field which serves the same purpose as that of the IP TTL byte in the IP header
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5462

QUESTION 11

Refer to Exhibit.

cisco 300-410 exam questions q11

Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?

A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF.
B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF
C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 1.
D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 20.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-410 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused
instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when
redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow
when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in the OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing
domain.
D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Correct Answer: A

When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing
loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP
from being redistributed again into the OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:

cisco 300-410 exam questions q12-1

QUESTION 13

An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP
phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?

A. BOOTP port 67
B. DHCP option 66
C. BOOTP port 68
D. DHCP option 69

Correct Answer: B

cisco 300-410 exam questions q13

Cisco 300-410 related exam list

Here is a list of Cisco 300-410 related exams, including exam PDF, exam practice questions, and complete exam questions and answers

Exam NameExam PDFExam PracticeExam Dumps
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)300-410 PDF300-410 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)300-415 PDF300-415 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-415.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)300-420 PDF300-420 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-420.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)300-425 PDF300-425 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-425.html
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)300-430 PDF300-430 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-430.html
Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)300-435 PDF300-435 Exam Practicehttps://www.lead4pass.com/300-435.html

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CompTIA N10-007 exam exercise questions,N10-007 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications” Exam N10-007. Here you can get the latest free CompTIA N10-007 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

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QUESTION 1
A network technician wants to baseline traffic flows on a specific network. Which of the following will provide the
GREATEST level of detail?
A. Network flow information
B. SNMP traps
C. Debug level syslog
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps
No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\\’s workstation The network
administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network
administrator also notices the following.
Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:
1.
Pins 5 and 7 are short
2.
The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch
1.
The VLAN is set correctly
2.
The port is not disabled
3.
The duplex”;speed settings are correct
4.
Port LEOs are off for that port.
5.
The port is set to untagged.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?
A. Bad switchport
B. Incorrect pinout
C. Open/short
D. VLAN mismatch
E. Distance limitation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A company recently upgraded a legacy firewall to an NGFW. Which of the following can be deployed without extra
hardware to restrict access to offending websites?
A. A UTM appliance
B. Content filtering
C. An IPS
D. A proxy server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A network technician configures a firewall to block only certain IP addresses from accessing the Internet. All users are
reporting that they are unable to access the Internet.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
A. Incorrectly configured ACL
B. Implicit allow statement
C. SMTP requests are being denied
D. All protocols are being allowed in
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A technician has designed a LAN with redundant switches. Which of the following should be configured to ensure
network availability?
A. VLAN
B. Scope options
C. Spanning tree
D. Flood guard
Correct Answer: C

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  • Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
  • Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
  • Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
  • Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient

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Free CompTIA N10-007 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following would Kim, a technician, do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses?
A. IPS
B. Application layer firewall
C. IDS
D. An unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Tenants access multiple wireless networks in a building. Users report intermittent connectivity. Which of the following is
the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The channels are overlapping with other wireless networks and should be changed.
B. The SSIDs are incompatible and should be renamed.
C. The users have incompatible wireless network cards and should upgrade.
D. The default idle period for logoff is too short and should be changed to a longer limit.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent issues with VoIP call quality. A throughput tester can help assess
the functionality of which of the following?
A. LLDP
B. VLAN tagging
C. QoS
D. SIP trunking
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been
tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing. Which of the following should the company
deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service?
A. QoS
B. Load balancing
C. High availability
D. Fiber optics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
company wants the public to be able to connect to the wireless network with minimal security, but not be able to connect
to the private internal network. Which of the following firewall rules would BEST accomplish this?
A. Content filtering on the wireless access point
B. Allow traffic from the wireless access point
C. Block traffic from the wireless access point
D. Packet filtering on the wireless access point
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue access point?
A. Port scan
B. Packet sniffer
C. IPS
D. IDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A user reports a network failure on a computer. The technician determines that the computer and NIC are operating
properly. Which of the following tools can the technician use to trace the network cabling back to the punch down
block?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Punch down tool
D. Toner probe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following
steps should the network technician take NEXT?
A. Test the possible solution
B. Q1 the users
C. Determine what has changed
D. Document the theory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network technician is assisting the security team with some traffic captures. The security team wants to capture all
traffic on a single subnet between the router and the core switch. To do so, the team must ensure there is only a single
collision and broadcast domain between the router and the switch from which they will collect traffic. Which of the
following should the technician install to BEST meet the goal?
A. Bridge
B. Crossover cable
C. Hub
D. Media converter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following problems is MOST likely to arise when configuring an IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel?
A. Routing loop
B. MTU black hole
C. Framing errors
D. SYN flood
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Joe, an employee at a large regional bank, wants to receive company email on his personal smartphone and table: To
authenticate on the mail server, he must first a custom security application on those mobile services. Which of the
following policies would BEST enforce this requirement?
A. Incident response policy
B. BYOD policy
C. DLP policy
D. Remote access policy
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP\\’s external VLAN is
connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?
A. The active system will note the failure in the HA table.
B. The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
C. The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
D. The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for
the network failure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two
profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. ServerSSL
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A. the system\\’s dossier
B. the system\\’s host name
C. the system\\’s base license
D. the system\\’s purchase order number
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A. It is always enabled.
B. It is part of a pool definition.
C. It is part of a profile definition.
D. It is part of a virtual server definition.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server
has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of
200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1
sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool
member?
A. 200.200.1.1
B. 150.150.10.11
C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system
D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to
use.
A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.
B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.
C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.
D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not
improved by specific changes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Where is the loadbalancing mode specified?
A. within the pool definition
B. within the node definition
C. within the virtual server definition
D. within the pool member definition
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable were to be disconnected
for five seconds and then reconnected?
A. As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur.
B. Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten seconds.
C. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.
D. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will
maintain active mode.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients using some pools
but not others. The determination is not based on the client\\’s IP address, but on the pool they are load balanced to.
What could best accomplish this goal?
A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select pools.
B. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved.
C. For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT pools could vary
dependent upon need.
D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client\\’s address (or network). Thus, this
goal cannot be achieved.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true regarding failover?
A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.
B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.
D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)
A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.
B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.
C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.
E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12
The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. The pool
is marked available. If a pool is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this?
A. All of the pool member nodes are responding to the ICMP monitor as expected.
B. Less than 50% of the pool member nodes responded to the ICMP echo request.
C. All of the members of the pool have had their content updated recently and their responses no longer match the
monitor.
D. Over 25% of the pool members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the
custom monitor. The other respond as expected.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
If a client\\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie
persistence?
A. The connection request is not processed.
B. The connection request is sent to a pology server.
C. The connection request is loadbalanced to an available pool member.
D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Henry Home Furnishings has built high-end furniture for nearly forty years. However, the new owner, Anton, has found
some degree of disorganization after touring the company headquarters. His uncle Henry has always focused on
production ? not data processing ? and Anton is concerned. In several storage rooms, he has found paper files, disks,
and old computers that appear to contain the personal data of current and former employees and customers. Anton
knows
that a single break-in could irrevocably damage the company\\’s relationship with its loyal customers. He intends to set a
goal of guaranteed zero loss of personal information.
To this end, Anton originally planned to place restrictions on who was admitted to the physical premises of the company.
However, Kenneth? his uncle\\’s vice president and longtime confidante? wants to hold off on Anton\\’s idea in favor of
converting any paper records held at the company to electronic storage. Kenneth believes this process would only take
one or two years. Anton likes this idea; he envisions a password-protected system that only he and Kenneth can
access.
Anton also plans to divest the company of most of its subsidiaries. Not only will this make his job easier, but it will
simplify the management of the stored data. The heads of subsidiaries like the art gallery and kitchenware store down
the street
will be responsible for their own information management. Then, any unneeded subsidiary data still in Anton\\’s
possession can be destroyed within the next few years.
After learning of a recent security incident, Anton realizes that another crucial step will be notifying customers. Kenneth
insists that the two lost hard drives in question are not cause for concern; all of the data was encrypted and not sensitive in
nature. Anton does not want to take any chances, however. He intends on sending notice letters to all employees and
customers to be safe.
Anton must also check for compliance with all legislative, regulatory, and market requirements related to privacy
protection. Kenneth oversaw the development of the company\\’s online presence about ten years ago, but Anton is not
confident
about his understanding of recent online marketing laws. Anton is assigning another trusted employee with a law
background the task of the compliance assessment. After a thorough analysis, Anton knows the company should be
safe for
another five years, at which time he can order another check. Documentation of this analysis will show auditors’ due
diligence.
Anton has started down a long road toward improved management of the company, but he knows the effort is worth it.
Anton wants his uncle\\’s legacy to continue for many years to come.
In terms of compliance with regulatory and legislative changes, Anton has a misconception regarding?
A. The timeline for monitoring
B. The method of recordkeeping
C. The use of internal employees
D. The type of required qualifications
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements?
A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties
B. Look for overlaps in-laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed
C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance
D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations and inform stakeholders why they are applicable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As the company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection.
Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of
users
around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable
practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft
that
made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite
the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the
company\\’s
business as competitors was quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and
media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s
mentor,
was forced to step down.
Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Mediaite, which is
just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Mediaite building its
brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of
a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in
privacy
protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to
bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Mediaite to have absolutely the
highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data
protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best
solutions across the board, they also need to be cost-effective.”
You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you
depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps.
You give a presentation to your CEO about privacy program maturity. What does it mean to have a “managed” privacy program, according to the AICPA/CICA Privacy Maturity Model?
A. Procedures or processes exist, however they are not fully documented and do not cover all relevant aspects.
B. Procedures and processes are fully documented and implemented and cover all relevant aspects.
C. Reviews are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the controls in place.
D. Regular review and feedback are used to ensure continuous improvement toward optimization of the given process.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://vvena.nl/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/aicpa_cica_privacy_maturity_model.pdf (page 2, 4th point
under privacy maturity model)

 

QUESTION 4
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which of the following situations would LEAST likely require a controller to notify a data subject?
A. An encrypted USB key with sensitive personal data is stolen
B. A direct marketing email is sent with recipients visible in the `cc\\’ field
C. Personal data of a group of individuals are erroneously sent to the wrong mailing list
D. A hacker publishes usernames, phone numbers, and purchase history online after a cyber-attack
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout
Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message
asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the
vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company
recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the
vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a
result, the vendor has lost control of the data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they
set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is
limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on
hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated
with
the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent
experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and
no longer
has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They
simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email
address,
and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want
to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth.
The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in
other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to
veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote
and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit
down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
Regarding the notification, which of the following would be the greatest concern?
A. Informing the affected individuals that data from other individuals may have also been affected.
B. Collecting more personally identifiable information than necessary to provide updates to the affected individuals.
C. Using a postcard with the logo of the vendor who make the mistake instead of your company\\’s logo.
D. Trusting a vendor to send out a notice when they already failed once by not encrypting the database.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As the director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with your
accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following a series of
relatively minor
data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a reportable incident for the three years
that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your program a model that others in the data storage
industry
may note in their own program development.
You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked toward coherence
across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the program\\’s sponsor, the vice
president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear understanding of the need for change.
Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among both the
executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the use of metrics that
showed
the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the costs that easily could occur given the
current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other
employees were more resistant, but face-to-face meetings with each department and the development of a baseline
privacy training program achieved sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place.
Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected data and
must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your approach is not systematic, it
is
fairly effective.
You are left contemplating: What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach
prevention program? How can you build on your success? What are the next action steps?
What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program being
developed at Consolidated?
A. Privacy by Design
B. Privacy Step Assessment
C. Information Security Planning
D. Innovation Privacy Standards
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is the main purpose in notifying data subjects of a data breach?
A. To avoid financial penalties and legal liability
B. To enable regulators to understand trends and developments that may shape the law
C. To ensure organizations have accountability for the sufficiency of their security measures
D. To allow individuals to take any actions required to protect themselves from possible consequences
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout
Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message
asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the
vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company
recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the
vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a
result, the vendor has lost control of the data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they
set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is
limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on
hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated
with
the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent
experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and
no longer
has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They
simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email
address,
and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want
to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth.
The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in
other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to
veer
off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote
and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit
down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern?
A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience
B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year
C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit
D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In
1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for
employees
who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of
lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased,
leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format.
The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace.
Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes
expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a
Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at
hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly
profitable,
Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was
developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional
certifications in
the hospitality industry.
By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and
take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default,
including
the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration
page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name
and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and
sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications.
PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning
providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training
program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and
Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program
ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They
planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed.
In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed
the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site,
hackers
also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers.
The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the
PHT
database with all its contents.
A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific
Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm.
Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data.
PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing
information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not
implemented when
PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time
technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders
were
potential victims of fraudulent activity.
How would a strong data life cycle management policy have helped prevent the breach?
A. Information would have been ranked according to the importance and stored in separate locations
B. The most sensitive information would have been immediately erased and destroyed
C. The most important information would have been regularly assessed and tested for security
D. Information would have been categorized and assigned a deadline for destruction
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In
1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for
employees
who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which was delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased,
leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format.
The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace.
Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes
expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a
Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at
hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly
profitable,
Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was
developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional
certifications in
the hospitality industry.
By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and
take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default,
including
the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration
page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name
and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and
sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications.
PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning
providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training
program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and
Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the
program
ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They
planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed.
In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed
the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site,
hackers
also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers.
The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the
PHT
database with all its contents.
A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific
Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm.
Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data.
PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing
information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not
implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time
technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders
were
potential victims of fraudulent activity.
How was Pacific Suites responsible for protecting the sensitive information of its offshoot, PHT?
A. As the parent company, it should have transferred personnel to oversee the secure handling of PHT\\’s data.
B. As the parent company, it should have performed an assessment of PHT\\’s infrastructure and confirmed complete
separation of the two networks.
C. As the parent company, it should have ensured its existing data access and storage procedures were integrated into
PHT\\’s system.
D. As the parent company, it should have replaced PHT\\’s electronic files with hard-copy documents stored securely on
site.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which term describes a piece of personal data that alone may not identify an individual?
A. Unbundled data
B. A singularity
C. Non-aggregated info point
D. A single attribute
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In
1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for
employees
who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of
lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased,
leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format.
The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace.
Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes
expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a
Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at
hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly
profitable,
Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was
developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional
certifications in
the hospitality industry.
By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and
take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default,
including
the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration
page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name
and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications,
and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional
certifications.
PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning
providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training
program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and
Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the
program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day
operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed.
In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed
the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers
also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers.
The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the
PHT database with all its contents.
A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific
Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm.
Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data.
PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing
information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not
implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or
oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least
8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity.
What key mistake set the company up to be vulnerable to a security breach?
A. Collecting too much information and keeping it for too long
B. Overlooking the need to organize and categorize data
C. Failing to outsource training and data management to professionals
D. Neglecting to make a backup copy of archived electronic files
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Your organization, the Chicago (U.S.)-based Society for Urban Greenspace, has used the same vendor to operate all
aspects of an online store for several years. As a small nonprofit, the Society cannot afford the higher-priced options,
but
you have been relatively satisfied with this budget vendor, Shopping Cart Saver (SCS). Yes, there have been some
issues. Twice, people who purchased items from the store have had their credit card information used fraudulently
subsequent to transactions on your site, but in neither case did the investigation reveal with certainty that the Society\\’s store had been hacked. The thefts could have been employee-related.
Just as disconcerting was an incident where the organization discovered that SCS had sold information it had collected
from customers to third parties. However, as Jason Roland, your SCS account representative, points out, it took only a
phone call from you to clarify expectations and the “misunderstanding” has not occurred again.
As an information-technology program manager with the Society, the role of the privacy professional is only one of many
you play. In all matters, however, you must consider the financial bottom line. While these problems with privacy
protection have been significant, the additional revenues of sales of items such as shirts and coffee cups from the store
have been significant. The Society\\’s operating budget is slim, and all sources of revenue are essential.
Now a new challenge has arisen. Jason called to say that starting in two weeks, the customer data from the store would
now be stored on a data cloud. “The good news,” he says, “is that we have found a low-cost provider in Finland, where
the data would also be held. So, while there may be a small charge to pass through to you, it won\\’t be exorbitant,
especially considering the advantages of a cloud.”
Lately, you have been hearing about cloud computing and you know it\\’s fast becoming the new paradigm for various
applications. However, you have heard mixed reviews about the potential impacts on privacy protection. You begin to
research and discover that a number of the leading cloud service providers have signed a letter of intent to work
together on shared conventions and technologies for privacy protection. You make a note to find out if Jason\\’s Finnish
provider
is signing on.
After conducting research, you discover a primary data protection issue with cloud computing. Which of the following
should be your biggest concern?
A. An open programming model that results in easy access
B. An unwillingness of cloud providers to provide security information
C. A lack of vendors in the cloud computing market
D. A reduced resilience of data structures that may lead to data loss.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which third-party management software can not integrate Huawei server now?
A. HPOpenView
B. HPOneView
C. Nagios 4.x
D. vCenter6.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Huawei E9000 server supports mixed insertion of blades.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which functions are iBMC\\’s specification of remote management ? (Multiple Choice)
A. Virtual KVM
B. SOL(Serial over LAN)
C. Virtual Media
D. redfish API
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Which types of storage can the G560 support? (Multiple Choice) A. 2.5″ NVMe SSD
B. 3.5″ HDD
C. 2.5H HDD/SSD
D. M.2 SSD
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 5
Server node types of Huawei X6800 are: (Multiple Choice)
A. GPU node
B. Compute node
C. Compute-storage balancing node
D. Storage node
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 6
Which Intel processor does Huawei X6800 XH622 V3 support?
A. E5-2600v2
B. E5-2600v4
C. E5-4600
D. E3-1200v2
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which application scenario is the G530 V2 with 16 x P4 typically used for?
A. AI Training
B. AI Inference
C. HPC
D. All of them
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Huawei RH1288 V3 is a 1U rack server.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which servers does HUAWEI NVMe SSD support? (Multiple Choice)
A. RH1288 V3
B. HP DL380
C. RH8100
D. Dell R630
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum number of NVMe SSDs supported by Huawei 2288H V5?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 28
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Huawei E9000 uses the passive midplane that has no active components such as a resistor or IC.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which components does iBMC monitor? (Multiple Choice)
A. PSU
B. PCIe
C. CPU
D. Fan module
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 13
The Huawei X6000 high-density server supports 24 NVMe SSDs in each chassis.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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