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Latest RedHat EX294 dumps Exam Questions:

From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Lead4Pass	15	Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 8	EX294

Question 1:

Create a playbook called timesvnc.yml in /home/sandy/ansible using the system role time sync. Set the time to use the currently configured nip with the server 0.uk.pool.ntp.org. Enable burst. Do this on all hosts.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Solution as:

Question 2:

Create a playbook called webdev.yml in \’home/sandy/ansible. The playbook will create a directory Avcbdev on the dev host. The permission of the directory is 2755 and the owner is webdev. Create a symbolic link from /Web dev to /var/www/html/web dev. Serve a file from Avebdev7index.html which displays the text “Development” Curl http://node1.example.com/webdev/index.html to test

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Solution as:

Question 3:

Prevent Mary from performing user configuration tasks in your system.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Conclusions:

1. I find that it is common to add various service access limits in the exam RHCE. The exercises like:

require one network segment can be accessed another network segment can not be accessed, the following are some conclusions for various services:

tcp_wrappers:/etc/hosts.allow,/etc/hosts.deny

tcp_wrappers can filter the TCP\’s accessing service. TCP has the filtering function which depends on this service whether uses the function library of tcp_wrappers, or this service whether has the xinetd process of starting the function of

tcp_wrappers. tcp_wrappers\’s main configuration file is /etc/hosts.allow,/etc/ hosts.deny.

And the priority of the documents in hosts. allow is higher than hosts. deny. The visit will be passed if no match was found.

sshd,vsftpd can use the filtering service of tcp_wrappers.

Configuration example:

Notice:

The two configuration files\’ syntax can refer to hosts_access (5) and hosts_options(5) sshd_config There are four parameters in this configuration file: DenyUsers, AllowUsers, DenyGroups, AllowGroups, they are used to limit some users or

user groups to proceed with Remote Login through SSH. These parameters\’ priority level is DenyUsers->AllowUsers->DenyGroups->AllowGroups Configuration example:

httpd Service Through the /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf in parameters, can add to control the url access. Just as:

Notice:

So pay attention, deny\’s and allow\’s priority level in order deny, allow is: the backer has the higher priority level. But here, allow\’s priority has a higher priority level.

NFS Service

NFS service directly controls the visits through file /etc/exports, just as:

samba Service

Parameter hosts allow in /etc/samba/smb.conf which is used as Access Control, just as:

2.

Paying attention to using Mount parameters: _netdev, defaults when you are mounting ISCSI disk.

3.

Stop the NetworkManager /etc/init.d/NetworkManager stop chkconfig NetworkManager off

4.

When you are deploying ifcfg-ethX, add parameters: PEERDNS=no

5.

Empty the firewall in RHCSARHCE:

6.

Narrow lv steps:

7.

Mount the using command – swap which is newly added in /etc/fstab

8.

If Verification is not passed when you are installing software, can import the public key: rpm import /etc/PKI/ rpm…/…release and so on. In yum. repo, you also can deploy gpgkey, for example, gpgkey=/etc/PKI/rpm…/ …release

9.

When you are using the “Find” command to search and keep these files, pay attention to using cp -a to copy files if you use user name and authority as your searching methods.

Question 4:

SIMULATION

You are giving RHCE exam. The examiner gave you the Boot related problem and told to you that make successfully boot the System. When you started the system, System automatically asking the root password for maintenance. How will you fix that problem?

A.

Correct Answer: Please see the explanation

Question 5:

Create a playbook called issue.yml in /home/sandy/ansible which changes the file /etc/issue on all managed nodes: If the host is a member of (lev then write “Development” If the host is a member of the test then write “Test” If the host is a member of prod then write “Production”

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Solution as:

Question 6:

SIMULATION

Given the kernel of permanent kernel parameters: sysctl=1. It can be shown on the cmd line after restarting the system. Kernel of /boot/grub/grub.conf should be a34dded finally, as:

A.

Correct Answer: Please see the explanation

Question 7:

Make an on /storage directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

1.

chmod 770 /storage

2.

Verify using: ls -ld /storage

Note:

The preview should be like this: drwxrwx— 2 root sys users 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /storage To change the permission on the directory we use the chmod command. According to the question, only the owner user (root) and group member (sys users) can

fully access the directory so:

chmod 770 /archive

Question 8:

SIMULATION

Please open the ip_forward and take effect permanently.

A.

Correct Answer: Please see the explanation

Question 9:

SIMULATION

There are Mail servers, Web Servers, DNS Servers, and Log Server. Log Server is already configured. You should configure the mail server, web server, and DNS server to send the logs to the log server.

A.

Correct Answer: Please see the explanation

Question 10:

There were two systems:

system1, the main system on which most of the configuration takes place system2, some configuration here

Configure repository.

Create a Repository for your virtual machines. The URL is http://station.network.0.example.com/content/ rhel7.0/x86_64/dvd

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Save and Exit (:wq) Then run this:

Question 11:

Create user accounts

–> A list of users to be created can be found in the file called user_list.yml

which you should download from http://classroom.example.com/user_list.yml and save to /home/admin/ansible/

–> Using the password vault created elsewhere in this exam, create a playbook called

create_user.yml

that creates user accounts as follows:

–> Users with a job description of a developer should be:

–> created on managed nodes in the “dev” and “test” host groups assigned the

password from the “dev_pass”

variable and this user should be a member of the supplementary group “DevOps”.

–> Users with a job description of manager should be:

–> created on managed nodes in the “prod” host group assigned the password from

the “mgr_pass” variable

and this user should be a member of the supplementary group “ops mgr”

–> Passwords should use the “SHA512” hash format. Your playbook should work using

the vault password file

created elsewhere in this exam.

while practicing you to create these files here. But in the exam have to download it as per the question.

user_list.yml file consists:

user:

–

name: user1

job: developer

–

name: user2

job: manager

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Solution as:

# pwd /home/admin/ansible # wget http://classroom.example.com/user_list.yml # cat user_list.yml # vim create_user.yml

-name:

hosts: all

vars_files:

-./user_list.yml

-./vault.yml

tasks:

-name: creating groups

group:

name: “{{ item }}”

state: present loop:

-DevOps

– ops mgr

–

name: creating user:

name: “{{ item.name }}”

state: present

groups: DevOps

password: “{{ dev_pass|password_hash (\’sha512\’) }}” loop: “{{ user }}”

when: (inventory_hostname in groups[\’dev\’] or inventory_hostname in groups[\’test\’]) and item.job == “developer”

–

name: creating user:

name: “{{ item.name }}”

state: present

groups: ops mgr

password: “{{ mgr_pass|password_hash (\’sha512\’) }}” loop: “{{ user }}”

when: inventory_hostname in groups[\’prod\’] and item.job == “manager” wq!

# ansible-playbook create_user.yml -–vault-password-file=password.txt -–syntax-check

# ansible-playbook create_user.yml -–vault-password-file=password.txt

Question 12:

Install the RHEL system roles package and create a playbook called timesync.yml that: –> Runs overall managed hosts.

–> Uses the time sync role.

–> Configures the role to use the time server 192.168.10.254 ( Hear in redhat lab

use “classroom.example.com” )

–> Configures the role to set the burst parameter as enabled.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Solution as:

# pwd

home/admin/ansible/

# sudo yum install the-system-roles.noarch -y

# cd roles/

# ansible-galaxy list

# cp -r /usr/share/ansible/roles/the system-roles. time sync.

# vim timesync.yml

-name: time synchronization hosts: all vars: timesync_ntp_provider: chrony timesync_ntp_servers:

-hostname: classroom.example.com _ in exam its ip-address burst: yes timezone: Asia/Kolkata roles:

-the-system-roles.time sync

tasks:

-name: set timezone

timezone:

name: “{{ timezone }}”

wq!

timedatectl list-timezones | grep India

# ansible-playbook timesync.yml –syntax-check

# ansible-playbook timesync.yml

# ansible all -m shell -a \’chronic sources -v\’

# ansible all -m shell -a \’timedatectl\’

# ansible all -m shell -a \’systemctl is-enabled chronyd\’

Question 13:

There were two systems:

system1, the main system on which most of the configuration takes place system2, some configuration here Configure port forwarding.

Configure server X to forward traffic incoming on port 80/TCP from source network 172.25.X.0/255.255.255.0 to port 5243/TCP.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Configure the kernel parameters: rhelblq=1, and it is requested that your kernel parameters can be verified through /proc/cmdline.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Add a cron schedule to take a full backup of /home on every day at 5:30 pm to /dev/st0 device.

A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.

Correct Answer: A

1.

vi /var/schedule 30 17 * * * /bin/dump -0u /dev/st0 /dev/hda7

2.

crontab /var/schedule

3.

service cron restart

We can add the cron schedule either by specifying the script’s path on the/etc/crontab file or by creating a text file on the crontab pattern.

cron helps to schedule recurring events. The pattern of cron is: Minute Hour Day of Month Month Day of Week Commands

0-59 0-23 1-31 1-12 0-7 where 0 and 7 mean Sunday.

Note * means every. To execute the command every two minutes */2.

…

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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
Lead4pass	13	Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) (Include 2023 Newest Simulation Labs)	300-410	300-410 dumps

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured IP SLA on R1 to avoid the ISP link flapping problem, but it is not working as designed. IP SLA should wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection and then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds when the primary link is available and stabilized.

R1# *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) Change #8 ip sla 700, state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956:
%TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Up -> Down
*Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:38:59.956:
track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) Change

9 ip sla 700, state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18

15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing

Which configuration resolves the issue?

A. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1 (config-track)#delay down 30 up 20

B. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 30 up 20

C. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 20 up 30

D. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1(config-track)#delay down 20 up 30

Correct Answer: A

“wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection” -> delay down 30

“then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds” -> up 20 Under the tracked object, you can specify delays so we have to configure delay under “track 700 ip sla 700” (not under “ip sla 700”).

QUESTION 2:

The exhibit is a frame relay hub-and-spoke topology with router A as the hub.

You want to use the OSPF routing protocol between all three locations. Which interface configuration commands are required on router A? (Choose three.)

A. ip ospf network broadcast

B. ip ospf network point-to-point

C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

D. frame-relay map 10.20.10.21 221

E. frame-relay map 10.20.10.22 222

F. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.21 221 broadcast

G. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.22 222 broadcast

Correct Answer: CFG

In OSPF point-to-multipoint mode, the routers will automatically identify each neighbor. The election of a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) are not required.

This RFC-compliant mode of operation is commonly found in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke designs. In the diagram shown in the scenario, router A is the hub.

The frame relay serial interface has one DLCI for each spoke location. DLCI 221 is used by router A to communicate with router C and DLCI 222 is used to communicate with router B. On the router, A\’s serial interface, the point-to-multipoint mode is enabled with the ip ospf network configuration command. The following is the syntax of the ip ospf network command:

ip ospf network [{broadcast | nonbroadcast | point-to-multipoint | point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast}]

The command parameters are as follows:

broadcast – This mode enables the interface to emulate a LAN. This mode requires a full or partial mesh topology.

nonbroadcast – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is also referred to as NBMA mode. The neighbors must be statically configured.

point-to-multipoint – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is used in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke.

Routers use additional LSAs to discover neighboring routers instead of manually defining DRs and BDRs.

The hub router floods

link state updates (LSUs) by duplicating the update to be sent to each router using the respective DLCI.

point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast – This is a Cisco extension to the point-to-multipoint mode.

This mode is useful when the frame relay virtual circuits do not support broadcast traffic. Neighbors are manually defined.

There is no point-to-point parameter for the ip ospf command. Creating a point-to-point configuration differs in that the point-to-point parameter is executed as a parameter of the command that creates the subinterface that hosts the point-to-point connection as shown below:

Router(config)# interface serial 0.1 point-to-point

When configuring a serial interface without sub-interfaces, OSPF will check the encapsulation to determine the network type. HDLC and PPP default to point-to-point while Frame-Relay encapsulation defaults to nonbroadcast.

The frame-relay map command identifies the mapping between the Layer 3 address (IP address) and the Layer 2 address (DLCI). The frame relay virtual circuits from the hub router are identified as supporting broadcast traffic by using the frame-relay map command with the broadcast keyword.

Objective:

Layer 2 Technologies

Sub-Objective:

Explain Frame Relay

References:

Cisco > Home > Support > Support Technology > Support > IP Routing > Configure > Configuration Examples and Technotes > Initial Configurations for OSPF over Frame Relay Subinterfaces Cisco > Cisco IOS Wide-Area Networking Command Reference > frame-relay lap n201 through fr-atm connect dlci > frame-relay map

QUESTION 3:

You manage the company network, as shown in the network diagram below: You executed the following command on RouterA:

routerA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 routerA(config)# router eigrp 200 routerA(config-router)# redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the given set of commands? (Choose two.)

A. A static default route is created on RouterA

B. A summary default route is created on RouterA

C. The default route is redistributed into the EIGRP network

D. The default route is not advertised to the EIGRP network

Correct Answer: AC

The given set of commands creates a static default route on RouterA and redistributes this route into the EIGRP company network. The ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 command executed in the global configuration mode creates a static default route on the router.

The ip route command allows you to specify a static route. The redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500 command then redistributes the static default route into the EIGRP autonomous system (AS)

This implies that the EIGRP network identifies the default route as an external route, and traffic to all unknown destination subnets will be diverted to the default route.

Alternatively, default routes can be advertised into EIGRP networks by either of the following methods: Using the network 0.0.0.0 command on the router Using the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command on the router

A summary default route is not created on RouterA in the scenario. If the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command was used on RouterA, then a summary default route would be created.

The summary default route points to the 0.0.0.0 network with the null0 interface as the next-hop interface. Summary default routes are helpful for providing remote networks with a default route.

The default route is advertised to the EIGRP network because the redistribute command was executed.

This command is used to advertise the default route to the EIGRP network.

Objective:

Layer 3 Technologies

Sub-Objective:

Configure and verify default routing

References:

Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Design > Design TechNotes > Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper > Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol

QUESTION 4:

What is a characteristic of Layer 3 MPLS VPNs?

A. Traffic engineering capabilities provide QoS and SLAs.

B. Traffic engineering supports multiple IGP instances.

C. LSP signaling requires the use of unnumbered IP links for traffic engineering.

D. Authentication is performed by using digital certificates or preshared keys.

Correct Answer: A

MPLS traffic engineering supports only a single IGP process/instance

The MPLS traffic engineering feature does not support the routing and signaling of LSPs over unnumbered IP links.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_te_path_setup/configuration/xe-3s/mp-te-path-setup-xe-3s-book/mp-te-enhance-xe.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-
xml/ios/mp_te_diffserv/configuration/15-mt/mp-te-diffserv-15-mt-book/mp-te-diffserv-aw.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which control plane policy limits BGP traffic that is destined to the CPU to 1 Mbps and ignores BGP traffic that is sent at a higher rate?

A. policy-map SHAPE_BGP

B. policy-map LIMIT_BGP

C. policy-map POLICE_BGP

D. policy-map COPP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

What is the function of the IPv6 DHCP Guard feature for DHCP messages?

A. If the device is configured as a DHCP server, no message is switched.

B. All client messages are always switched regardless of the device’s role.

C. It blocks only DHCP request messages.

D. Only access lists are supported for matching traffic.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/15-sy/dhcp-15-sy-book/ip6-dhcpv6-guard.pdf

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers.

B. Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process.

C. Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes.

D. Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0.0 from the network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

The network administrator must configure R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using RADIUS.

ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1 (192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.

The administrator has configured this on R1:

aaa new-model! radius-server ISE1 address ipv4 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123 ! aaa group server tacacs+ RAD-SERV server name ISE1 ! aaa authentication login default group RAD-SERV

The network administrator cannot authenticate to access R1 based on ISE. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

A. line vty 0 4 login authentication RAD-SERV

B. aaa group server tacacs+ ISE1 server name RAD-SERV

C. aaa group server radius RAD-SERV server name ISE1

D. line vty 0 4 login authentication default

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?

A. 10.0.0.1

B. 192.168.1.2

C. 10.0.0.2

D. 192.168.3.2

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?

A. DMVPN

B. GETVPN

C. Cisco Easy VPN

D. FlexVPN

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

An engineer configured VRF-Lite on a router for VRF blue and VRF red. OSPF must be enabled on each VRF to peer to a directly connected router in each VRF.

Which configuration forms OSPF neighbors over the network 10.10.10.0/28 for VRF blue and 192.168.0.0/30 for VRF red?

A. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.240 area 0

B. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

C. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.240 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0

D. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192 168.0.0 0.0.0.15 are 0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and now PC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

A. Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B. Filter OSPF routes into RIP from EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2

C. Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D. Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E. Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Correct Answer: AB

Even PC2 cannot reach PC1 so there is something wrong with RIP redistribution in R2. Because RIP has higher Administrative Distance (AD) value than OSPF and EIGRP so it will be looped when doing mutual redistribution.

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from ethernet0/0 of R1.
Which configuration resolves the issue?

A. flow monitor Flowmonitor1 source Ethernet0/0

B. interface Ethernet0/1 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

C. interface Ethernet0/0 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

D. flow exporter FlowAnalyzer1 source Ethernet0/0

Correct Answer: C

…

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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Answers
Lead4Pass	15	CompTIA Security+	SY0-601	View

Question 1:

A company\’s bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company\’s forensics team to assist in the cyber-incident investigation.

An incident responder learns the following information:

The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs.

All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the hardwired network.

Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL inspection occurs, were unaffected.

Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?

A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites

B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM

C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges

D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network

The purchases are only getting affected from systems where SSL inspection is occurring. It’s fine on all others. IT cant be an HTTPS downgrade as that wouldn’t be specific to the SSL inspection.

---

Question 2:

Which of the following would produce the closest experience of responding to an actual incident response scenario?

A. Lessons learned

B. Simulation

C. Walk-through

D. Tabletop

---

Question 3:

During a trial, a judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. Which of the following BEST explains this reasoning?

A. The forensic investigator forgot to run a checksum on the disk image after the creation

B. The chain of custody form did not note time zone offsets between transportation regions

C. The computer was turned off. and a RAM image could not be taken at the same time D. The hard drive was not properly kept in an antistatic bag when it was moved

The question states that a trial Judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. It is obvious that this is a legal matter. All of the remaining answers are of a technical nature, So consequently the only issue that a Judge can rule on is a Chain of custody issue. So, ladies and gentlemen, I rest my case (quickly bangs a gavel upon the desk)

---

Question 4:

A security analyst is reviewing logs on a server and observes the following output:

Which of the following is the security analyst observing?

A. A rainbow table attack

B. A password-spraying attack

C. A dictionary attack

D. A keylogger attack

predefined list of words = dictionary attack

Reference: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/brute-force-attack/

---

Question 5:

A network administrator at a large organization is reviewing methods to improve the security of the wired LAN. Any security improvement must be centrally managed and allow corporate-owned devices to have access to the intranet but limit others to Internet access only. Which of the following should the administrator recommend?

A. 802.1X utilizing the current PKI infrastructure

B. SSO to authenticate corporate users

C. MAC address filtering with ACLs on the router D. PAM for user account management

It\’s possible to combine an 802.1x server with other network elements such as a virtual local area network (VLAN). For example, imagine you want to provide visitors with Internet access but prevent them from accessing internal network resources. You can configure the 802.1x server to grant full access to authorized clients but redirect unauthorized clients to a guest area of the network via a VLAN.

---

Question 6:

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a reek of this practice?

A. Default system configuration

B. Unsecure Protocols

C. Lack of vendor support

D. Weak encryption

---

Question 7:

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to Implement?

A. DLP

B. USB data blocker

C. USB OTG

D. Disabling USB ports

The best solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations would be to use a USB data blocker. A USB data blocker is a device that can be used to physically block the data pins on a USB cable, preventing data transfer while still allowing the device to be charged. This would prevent employees from accidentally or maliciously transferring sensitive data from their cell phones to the public charging station. Options A, C, and D would not be effective in preventing this type of data exfiltration

---

Question 8:

Which of the following is MOST likely to contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented?

A. An RTO report

B. A risk register

C. A business impact analysis

D. An asset value register

E. A disaster recovery plan

A risk register is a document that records all of your organization \’s identified risks, the likelihood and consequences of a risk occurring, the actions you are taking to reduce those risks, and who is responsible for managing them

---

Question 9:

A security analyst is receiving several alerts per user and is trying to determine If various logins are malicious. The security analyst would like to create a baseline of normal operations and reduce noise. Which of the following actions should the security analyst perform?

A. Adjust the data flow from authentication sources to the SIEM.

B. Disable email alerting and review the SIEM directly.

C. Adjust the sensitivity levels of the SIEM correlation engine.

D. Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM\’s learning mode.

Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM\’s learning mode.

UBA or User Behavior Analytics is a threat detection analysis technology that uses AI to understand how users normally behave and then find anomalous activities, which deviate from their normal behavior and may be indicative of a threat.

For this scenario, the SIEM will first learn what is normal behavior then when a baseline is created, it will know if any of the logins are malicious. Likely determined by when and where the logins are occurring and if it\’s different from the baseline. This should hopefully reduce the number of alerts occurring.

---

Question 10:

A security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:

1.

Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.

2.

A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).

3.

Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.

Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Choose two.)

A. Containerization

B. Storage segmentation

C. Posturing

D. Remote wipe

E. Full-device encryption

F. Geofencing

---

Question 11:

A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day, impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi network are not impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected.

Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit the SIP protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads.

Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. DoS

B. SSL stripping

C. Memory leak

D. Race condition

E. Shimming

F. Refactoring

A DoS attack is a type of cyber attack that is designed to disrupt the availability of a network, system, or service. In this case, the attacker is using the exploit outlined in the CVE to disrupt the availability of Internet and VoIP services at the university\’s remote campuses.

A Memory Leak is a type of software bug that occurs when a program or application allocates memory for a task but fails to release the memory when it is no longer needed. This can lead to a depletion of available memory resources, causing the system to crash or become unstable. The fact that the outages at the university are occurring at random intervals and are being caused by system reloads suggests that a Memory Leak may be present.

---

Question 12:

The new Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a large company has announced a partnership with a vendor that will provide multiple collaboration applications t make remote work easier. The company has a geographically dispersed staff located in numerous remote offices in different countries. The company\’s IT administrators are concerned about network traffic and load if all users simultaneously download the application.

Which of the following would work BEST to allow each geographic region to download the software without negatively impacting the corporate network?

A. Update the host IDS rules.

B. Enable application whitelisting.

C. Modify the corporate firewall rules.

D. Deploy all applications simultaneously.

---

Question 13:

The website http://companywebsite.com requires users to provide personal information, including security question responses, for registration. Which of the following would MOST likely cause a data breach?

A. Lack of input validation

B. Open permissions

C. Unsecure protocol

D. Missing patches

Website is using HTTP which is the unsecured protocol of HTTP

---

Question 14:

An organization is planning to open other data centers to sustain operations in the event of a natural disaster. Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization\’s resiliency?

A. Geographic dispersal

B. Generator power

C. Fire suppression

D. Facility Automation

Placing that data center far away, maybe in another country can help protect against disasters like an earthquake

---

Question 15:

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) at a major hospital wants to implement SSO to help improve in the environment of patient data, particularly at shared terminals. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is concerned that training and guidance have been provided to frontline staff, and risk analysis has not been performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of CRO\’s concerns?

A. SSO would simplify username and password management, making it easier for hackers to pass guess accounts.

B. SSO would reduce password fatigue, but staff would still need to remember more complex passwords.

C. SSO would reduce the password complexity for frontline staff.

D. SSO would reduce the resilience and availability of the system if the provider goes offline.

SSO works based upon a trust relationship set up between an application, known as the service provider, and an identity provider, like OneLogin. This trust relationship is often based upon a certificate that is exchanged between the identity provider and the service provider. This certificate can be used to sign identity information that is being sent from the identity provider to the service provider so that the service provider knows it is coming from a trusted source. In SSO, this identity data takes the form of tokens which contain identifying bits of information about the user like a user\’s email address or username.

…

---

Verify answer:

Questions:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

B

B

B

C

A

B

B

B

D

AD

AC

B

C

A

D

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Summarize:

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NEW QUESTION 1:

When working with application flows, which statement about errors In syntax and logic in Orchestration Designer is true?

A. They appear in the problems view in Orchestration Designer.
B. The errors are signaled by Orchestration Designer at the instant they occur,
C. The errors are automatically corrected.
D. They appear in the error log view.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which three applications are included with the IP Office admin suite Installation? (Choose three.)

A. Avaya Grep
B. System Status
C. IP Office Platform Manager
D. IP Office Manager
E. System Monitor

Correct Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 3:

Which statement about the function of the Access Class In Access and Partition Management Is true?

A. The Access Class will prevent a user from modifying skillset properties.
B. An Access Class will limit the Launchpad links a user may access.
C. The Access Class will be used to limit the user to report on specific contact center agents.
D. Access Classes will be used to limit a user to specific report groups.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4:

To reduce implementation time, the partner has prepared the customer/partner-supplied server in advance and plans to complete the configuration at the customer\’s site. The partner has pre-installed Windows and the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) software, but without running the ignition

Which deployment type does this represent?

A. Software Appliance option
B. Hardware Appliance option
C. DVD option
D. Trunkey option

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

The information used to populate Real Time Displays may be transmitted by using which two modes?
(Choose two.)

A. Broadcast
B. Unicast
C. Anycast
D. Multicast

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

A user\’s access to prompt management controls through the Launchpad is controlled through which three controls? (Choose three.)

A. Partitions
B. Element Manager login
C. Access class
D. Basic Launchpad rights
E. Windows group security

Correct Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 7:

Which statement about the Avaya SIP Sleuth is true?

A. It is a pre-installed application found under Contact Center Common Utilities.
B. It is a separate downloadable application that runs on a local workstation PC.
C. It is a pre-installed application but must be activated in the registry of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS).
D. It must be downloaded and run from the AMS element manager.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

The SIP Domain for the IP Office is set to ukaccslpoll.lab.trn.com. When administering the IP Office to work with Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS), which two steps are required? (Choose two.)

A. Verify SIP trunks are available for the ACCS integration.
B. Verify that SIP Registrar Enable is configured in the IP Office VoIP settings.
C. Administer the ACCS system SIP Domain to match the IP Office.
D. Change the IP Office SIP Domain to match the ACCS system.

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 9:

A call variable is useful because of which two characteristics? (Choose two.)

A. Only call variables of type Integer can be used as wild variables.
B. Their values can be changed during a call session to serve as a collector for caller-entered information.
C. They can be assigned a range of values when they are created in the variable editor.
D. They can be changed from a call variable to a global variable during a call session.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 10:

Contact Center calls arriving at the IP Office are not reaching the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) system.

What is causing this problem?

A. No agents are logged into any ACCS skillsets.
B. The control directory number is not acquired.
C. The master script is not activated.

D. The IP Office Short Code is not configured under the IP Office Server node.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

How many Multimedia users are fully configured within the sample users on Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 25
D. 100

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which tool or web page does the administrator use to manually synchronize IP Office and Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) user data?

A. ACCS, the Configuration component
B. ACCS, Contact Center Manager component
C. IP Office Web Manager
D. IP Office System Status

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13:

What are three of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) data sets that must be backed up to protect the ACCS system? (Choose three.)

A. WebLM
B. ADMIN
C. CCMA
D. REGISTRY
E. CCT

Correct Answer: ACE

…

---

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Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam name	From	Previous issue
13	Sep 19, 2022	Specialist – Implementation Engineer PowerEdge Version 2.0 (DES-4122)	Lead4Pass	May 22, 2022

QUESTION 1:

CORRECT TEXT

For a temporary migration task the CPU core count on the Dell EMC PowerEdge R640 server needs to be reduced to 8 because the installed application will not work due to license restrictions. Use the simulator to apply the change so the application can be installed.

When you have finished using the simulator, click Next.

A. No answer
B. Place Holder
C. Place Holder
D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A technician needs to change the iDRAC password on a Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G server in a lights-out datacenter.

The be rebooted because it is in production. The iDRAC is configured with the default credentials How could the technician change the iDRAC password?

A. SupportAssist Enterprise
B. iDRAC Web GUI
C. OpenManage Server Administrator
D. Virtual Console; press F2 after rebooting system

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

DRAG DROP

Match each status LED indicator on the Dell EMC 14G PowerEdge server with its corresponding condition.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4:

What is a key feature introduced in OpenManage Mobile v2.0?

A. Access servers remotely through OME
B. Access SupportAssist reports
C. Access a Virtual Console (VNC over SSH) securely
D. Access iDRAC remotely

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

An engineer needs to install an additional PSU on an existing, single PSU Dell EMC PowerEdge R740. They complete the initial installation and cabling procedures. They connect an AC cable and the power distribution unit produces normal AC output. The engineer checks power management and sees that the new PSU is in a Failed state.

What task should be completed to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Confirm the System Input Power CAP is not set to Low
B. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+1
C. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+0
D. Verify the new PSU is the same type and wattage rating

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

A technician installs eight servers into a fully operational rack with top of rack switch Each server has a quad 1Gb NIC and redundant power supplies The company uses iDRAC in shared LOM mode with LOM1 as the selected NIC

What should the technician do to verify iDRAC connectivity on each server?

A. iDRAC Datacenter license is installed.
B. Ethernet port LOM1 is cabled and the link light is green.
C. iDRAC dedicated NIC port is cabled and the link light is green
D. iDRAC Enterprise license is installed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

What must be done before upgrading OMSA from the 32-bit to the 64-bit version?

A. Save the license file
B. Disable UAC
C. Back up the configuration
D. Uninstall the earlier version

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

How can a technician know whether IDRAC9 System Lockdown mode is enabled?

A. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

B. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

C. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

D. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Does an engineer want to fully leverage Microsoft Windows Server 2016 for TPM-based guarded host deployment of a 14G server Which BIOS settings need to be used for installing the Windows server?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

Starting from which Dell EMC PowerEdge server hardware generation is the Micro SD card in the IDSDM/vFlash module supported?

A. 11G
B. 12G
C. 13G
D. 14G

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

What are key values related to systems management when deploying OpenManage Enterprise wit Dell EMC PowerEdge servers?

A. Automate Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Simple and effective

B. Simplify Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Fee-based license

C. Simplify Fee-based license Agent-free Management Secure

D. Simplify Unify Automate Secure

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

What is a characteristic of out-of-band management?

A. Dedicated device
B. Agent-based
C. Less secure
D. Dependent upon OS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is the Open Compute Project (OCP) card used for in a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. Flexibility to choose interconnects
B. Fixed networking card
C. Consume a PCIe slot
D. Provide a hot-swap component

Correct Answer: B

…

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New Question 1:

Which statement is correct about IS-IS link state PDUs?

A. They are used to maintain link-state database synchronization.

B. They are used to establish adjacencies.

C. They are used to build the link-state database.

D. They are used to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

Which Junos feature allows you to combine multiple interfaces into a single bundle?

A. VRRP

B. Virtual Chassis

C. LAG

D. NSB

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

Which protocol prevents loops and calculates the best path through a switched network that contains redundant paths?

A. VRRP

B. STP

C. DHCP

D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

What are two advantages of a point-to-point OSPF adjacency? (Choose two.)

A. Only a DR is elected.

B. No type 1 LSAs are generated.

C. No type 2 LSAs are generated.

D. There is quicker neighbor establishment.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 5:

Which two characteristics are true for EBGP peerings? (Choose two.)

A. EBGP peers must be directly connected.

B. EBGP connects peer devices in the same autonomous system.

C. EBGP connects peer devices in two different autonomous systems.

D. EBGP peers can be connected over a multihop connection.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 6:

Which two port security features use the DHCP snooping database for additional port security? (Choose two.)

A. dynamic ARP inspection

B. MACsec

C. IP Source Guard

D. MAC learning

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 7:

Which two statements are correct regarding the root bridge election process when using STP? (Choose two.)

A. A lower system MAC address is preferred.

B. A higher bridge priority is preferred.

C. A lower bridge priority is preferred.

D. A higher system MAC address is preferred.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 8:

What are two characteristics of OSPF ABRs? (Choose two.)

A. ABRs transmit routing information between the backbone and other areas.

B. ABRs cannot be part of the backbone and another area at the same time.

C. ABRs inject routing information from outside the OSPF domain.

D. ABRs link two OSPF areas.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 9:

Which statement is correct about trunk ports?

A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic.

B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic.

C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned.

D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address using DHCP.

Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device.

B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database.

C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI.

D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.)

A. a stable network topology

B. a neighbor configured with BFD

C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart

D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

You configured a GRE tunnel that traverses a path using default MTU settings. You want to ensure that packets are not dropped of fragmented.

In this scenario, what is the maximum packet size that would traverse the GRE tunnel?

A. 1500

B. 1400

C. 1524

D. 1476

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

When configuring firewall filters, which function does the interface-specific parameter enable on an EX Series switch?

A. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-specific counters.

B. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-specific counters.

C. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-based filters.

D. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-based firewall filters.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.)

A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination.

B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

C. BGP attributes are always optional.

D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 15:

Which static route next-hop value indicates that the packet will be silently dropped?

A. resolve

B. discard

C. reject

D. next-table

Correct Answer: B

…

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QUESTION 1:

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?

A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.

C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.

D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

QUESTION 2:

Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?

A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.

B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP.

C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.

D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP.

QUESTION 3:

Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)

A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.

B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.

C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.

D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.

E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

QUESTION 4:

A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address

when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

A. 200.200.1.1

B. 150.150.10.11

C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system

D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system

QUESTION 5:

Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose three.)

A. CLIENT_DATA

B. SERVER_DATA

C. HTTP_REQUEST

D. HTTP_RESPONSE

E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED

F. SERVER_SELECTED

G. SERVER_CONNECTED

QUESTION 6:

Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server\’s destination port were not 443?

A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server\’s port was not port 443.

B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.

C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended.

D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port
443.

QUESTION 7:

Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)

A. The bigtop command displays the status.

B. Only the active system\’s configuration screens are active.

C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt.

D. The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.

QUESTION 8:

The incoming client IP address is 205.12.45.52. The last five connections have been sent to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the virtual server and pool definitions and the statistics shown in the graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80

B. 10.10.20.2:80

C. 10.10.20.3:80

D. 10.10.20.4:80

E. 10.10.20.5:80

QUESTION 9:

Which statement is true regarding failover?

A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.

B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.

C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.

D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.

QUESTION 10:

Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use.

A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.

B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.

C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.

D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes.

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor

B. inherit the node\’s monitor

C. configure a default monitor

D. assign a monitor to the specific member

E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

QUESTION 12:

How is MAC masquerading configured?

A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.

B. Specify the desired MAC address for each selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems.

D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

QUESTION 13:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Answers:

A

C

CE

C

ACE

C

AC

A

B

C

ADE

A

C

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More detailed 010-151 DCTECH certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Certification: CCT Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $125 USD
Number of Questions: 65-75
010-151 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html (Total Questions: 136 Q&A)

Cisco 010-151 exam questions online practice test:

Question 1:

Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. iSCSI

D. FCoE

Question 2:

Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?

A. recovery

B. redundancy

C. resiliency

D. security

E. storage

Question 3:

The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?

A. 10 Mb/s

B. 100 Mb/s

C. 1000 Mb/s

D. 10000 Mb/s

Question 4:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Question 5:

What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?

A. 100 Mb/s

B. 1 Gb/s

C. 10 Gb/s

D. 100 Gb/s

Question 6:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Question 7:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Question 8:

What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A. Amber

B. Red

C. Blinking amber

D. Blinking red

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?

A. HDD 1

B. TFP Module

C. SuperCap Module

D. CPU 2

E. CMOS Battery

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

A. A is the power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is the system status LED; D is the network link activity LED.

B. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

C. A is the system status LED; B is the network link activity LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

D. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the identification button and LED; D is the power button and power status LED.

Question 11:

Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors

C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Question 12:

Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548P

B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP

C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

D. Cisco Nexus 5596T

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?

A. MDS 9509

B. MDS 9513

C. MDS 9710

D. MDS 9506

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?

A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server

B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server

C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server

D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Question 15:

Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?

A. first-generation supervisor module

B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)

C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)

D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

C

B

B

B

D

AE

C

C

D

A

C

D

C

C

C

CCT Data Center certification exam The only core exam (010-151 DCTECH) that focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco Unified Computing Systems and servers.
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4A0-N01 Exam Details:

Vendor: Nokia

Exam Code: 4A0-N01

Exam Name: Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam

Certification: Nuage Networks Professional – Software-Defined Datacenter (NNP SD-DC)

Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A

Exam Duration: 90 Minutes

Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45-minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.

Number of Questions: 40

Language: English

Price: $125 US

4A0-N01 Free dumps online reading:

QUESTION 1:

To auto-instantiate services on a 7750 DCI, which protocol needs to be enabled between the 7750 SR and VSD?

A. SNMP
B. Openflow
C. XMPP
D. BGP EVPN

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What statement regarding VSD user management is TRUE?

A. We can create CMS user groups for each enterprise.
B. Each enterprise user belongs to only one user group.
C. Open LDAP and Active Directory can be integrated into VSD.
D. LDAP integration is configured at the VSD global level, and it is not a configurable enterprise.

Correct Answer: B

Easy as adding them to a specific user group.

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/target/using/administer/manage-users/enterprise/ property-channel.html

QUESTION 3:

What statement about stateful ACL entries is FALSE?

A. They can track both TCP and UDP flows.
B. They can be created in either ingress or egress directions.
C. A packet in the direction of the stateful ACL rules will automatically create a “related” rule in the reverse direction.
D. The automatically created rules will not go away until the ACL is manually deactivated and reactivated.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

What statement about Open vSwitch is TRUE?

A. It is a standard virtual switch that can run on any operating system.
B. It can only be configured using Openflow by an SDN controller.
C. It provides tunneling mechanisms, for example, VXLAN.
D. It supports most of the open protocols, for example, OSPF, and BGP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

Which of the following is NOT a goal of NFV?

A. Reduce equipment cost
B. Faster time-to-market for new services
C. Efficiency through automation
D. Increase network bandwidth

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

What statement regarding the VRS-G is FALSE?

A. The VRS-G is the software VXLAN/VLAN gateway of the Nuage VCS solution.
B. The VRS-G is deployed on a hypervisor, following the same deployment requirements as a regular VRS.
C. Virtual machines created on the hypervisor are attached to access ports on VRS-G.
D. The network ports on VRS-G point towards the Nuage overlay VXLAN network.

Correct Answer: B

This permits the bridging of the hypervisor-focused overlay networking and physical devices in the data center.

Reference: https://jujucharms.com/nuage-vrsg/

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the diagram.

What is the correct sequence of events for a VM to be instantiated, and for its required network connectivity to be created with the Nuage VCS solution?

a. Network domain and policy templates are defined on VSD.
b. VSC queries VSD on network service and policies.
c. VSD provides VSC with network service and policies.
d. VRS agent informs VSC of the new VM placement.
e. VSC deploys policy to applicable VRS agents.
f. VM instantiated on the hypervisor.

A. a->b->c->d->e->f
B. a->b->c->f->d->-e
C. a->f->d->b->c->-e
D. f->d->b->a>c->-e

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following is a solution to create virtual machines in which the server runs the hypervisor as a specialized operating system and, as a consequence, there is no need for a conventional operating system?

A. Kernel
B. Container
C. Native hypervisor
D. Hosted hypervisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

What is the difference between host vPort and bridge vPort?

A. A host vPort is provisioned on VRS-G, while a bridge vPort is provisioned on VSG.
B. A host vPort is provisioned for VLAN traffic, while a bridge vPort is for VxLAN traffic.
C. A host vPort only supports one VLAN, while a bridge vPort can be configured with multiple VLANs.
D. A host vPort requires static MAC address configuration, while a bridge vPort learns MAC addresses dynamically.

Correct Answer: A

Bridge vPort hosted in Nuage VSG/VSA Gateways Software, VRS and VRS-G hosted vPort

Reference: https://matscloud.blogspot.com/2017/06/nuage-networks-vsp-deep-dive.html

QUESTION 10:

What statement is TRUE regarding multiple virtual IP addresses assigned to a single vPort?

A. The virtual IP addresses can be in a different subnet than the VM interface IP address.
B. All virtual IP addresses of a vPort must be in the same subnet.
C. One of the virtual IP addresses can be the same as the VM interface IP address.
D. Every virtual IP address must be associated with a virtual MAC, which differs from the VM interface MAC address.

Correct Answer: A

If you have only one public IP address available, and you want to host multiple servers, use aVIP.

QUESTION 11:

What is NOT a component of VSD?

A. Neutron
B. Statistics Engine
C. Policy Management Engine
D. RESTful API

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.nuagenetworks.net/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/
PR1507013354EN_NN_RedH_Open_Hybrid_Clouds_PartnerSolutionBrief.pdf

QUESTION 12:

What statement about statistics rules on Nuage VCS is FALSE?

A. Users can define statistics rules for domain/zones/subnets/vPorts. The rule applied to the most granular object is the one used.

B. Statistics are collected in an Elasticsearch statistics engine and are aggregated over hours, days, and months.

C. Statistics are pushed from VRS up to VSC, which in turn sends them to the VSD stats engine.

D. When a TCA threshlod is exceeded, an event is displayed in the UI and a message is sent on the JMS bus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is NOT a function of the VSC?

A. CMS integration
B. SDN controller
C. BGP federation
D. XMPP communication with VSD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/networking/sdn/definitions/nuage-networks-vsc/

……

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QUESTION 1:

If a client\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?

A. The connection request is not processed.
B. The connection request is sent to a topology server.
C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member.
D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members.
whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?

A. That support is never available.
B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs.
C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN.
D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. CLI access to the serial console port
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 4:

A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection.
D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?

A. the system\’s dossier
B. the system\’s hostname
C. the system\’s base license
D. the system\’s purchase order number

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D, and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
F. It cannot be determined with the information given.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)

A. SNAT\’s are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Profile definition.
C. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D. SNAT\’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?

A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system.

B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.

C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?

A. host names
B. system clocks
C. profile definitions
D. VLAN fail-safe settings
E. MAC masquerade addresses

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor
B. inherit the node\’s monitor
C. configure a default monitor
D. assign a monitor to the specific member
E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member, or node.
B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test.
C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s members passed the test.
D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool\’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13:

When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?

A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception.
D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server.

Correct Answer: B

……

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