Useful Latest Lead4pass IT Exam Dumps Questions And Answers Update

Lead4Pass has newly released the latest Avaya 78950X exam dumps! contains 65 exam questions and answers, candidates can use the two study tools provided by Lead4Pass to effectively study the latest exam materials: 78950X dumps VCE and 78950X dumps PDF.

It can help candidates improve their study efficiency and pass the exam successfully! Now get the latest 78950X dumps in VCE and PDF from Lead4Pass — https://www.lead4pass.com/78950x.html (65 Q&A dumps)

BTW, Avaya 78950X exam candidates can get some free exam questions and answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lqyGgfE3GVR2Kq541NhaSumVP7x-TU8-/

What’s more, the Avaya 78950X Dumps exam questions and answers can also be read online:

NEW QUESTION 1:

When working with application flows, which statement about errors In syntax and logic in Orchestration Designer is true?

A. They appear in the problems view in Orchestration Designer.
B. The errors are signaled by Orchestration Designer at the instant they occur,
C. The errors are automatically corrected.
D. They appear in the error log view.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which three applications are included with the IP Office admin suite Installation? (Choose three.)

A. Avaya Grep
B. System Status
C. IP Office Platform Manager
D. IP Office Manager
E. System Monitor

Correct Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 3:

Which statement about the function of the Access Class In Access and Partition Management Is true?

A. The Access Class will prevent a user from modifying skillset properties.
B. An Access Class will limit the Launchpad links a user may access.
C. The Access Class will be used to limit the user to report on specific contact center agents.
D. Access Classes will be used to limit a user to specific report groups.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4:

To reduce implementation time, the partner has prepared the customer/partner-supplied server in advance and plans to complete the configuration at the customer\’s site. The partner has pre-installed Windows and the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) software, but without running the ignition

Which deployment type does this represent?

A. Software Appliance option
B. Hardware Appliance option
C. DVD option
D. Trunkey option

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

The information used to populate Real Time Displays may be transmitted by using which two modes?
(Choose two.)

A. Broadcast
B. Unicast
C. Anycast
D. Multicast

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

A user\’s access to prompt management controls through the Launchpad is controlled through which three controls? (Choose three.)

A. Partitions
B. Element Manager login
C. Access class
D. Basic Launchpad rights
E. Windows group security

Correct Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 7:

Which statement about the Avaya SIP Sleuth is true?

A. It is a pre-installed application found under Contact Center Common Utilities.
B. It is a separate downloadable application that runs on a local workstation PC.
C. It is a pre-installed application but must be activated in the registry of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS).
D. It must be downloaded and run from the AMS element manager.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

The SIP Domain for the IP Office is set to ukaccslpoll.lab.trn.com. When administering the IP Office to work with Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS), which two steps are required? (Choose two.)

A. Verify SIP trunks are available for the ACCS integration.
B. Verify that SIP Registrar Enable is configured in the IP Office VoIP settings.
C. Administer the ACCS system SIP Domain to match the IP Office.
D. Change the IP Office SIP Domain to match the ACCS system.

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 9:

A call variable is useful because of which two characteristics? (Choose two.)

A. Only call variables of type Integer can be used as wild variables.
B. Their values can be changed during a call session to serve as a collector for caller-entered information.
C. They can be assigned a range of values when they are created in the variable editor.
D. They can be changed from a call variable to a global variable during a call session.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 10:

Contact Center calls arriving at the IP Office are not reaching the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) system.

What is causing this problem?

A. No agents are logged into any ACCS skillsets.
B. The control directory number is not acquired.
C. The master script is not activated.

D. The IP Office Short Code is not configured under the IP Office Server node.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

How many Multimedia users are fully configured within the sample users on Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 25
D. 100

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which tool or web page does the administrator use to manually synchronize IP Office and Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) user data?

A. ACCS, the Configuration component
B. ACCS, Contact Center Manager component
C. IP Office Web Manager
D. IP Office System Status

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13:

What are three of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) data sets that must be backed up to protect the ACCS system? (Choose three.)

A. WebLM
B. ADMIN
C. CCMA
D. REGISTRY
E. CCT

Correct Answer: ACE

…

---

Download the Lead4Pass 78950X Dumps with PDF and VCE to ensure you 100% successfully pass the Avaya Contact Center Select Implementation and Maintenance Exam — https://www.lead4pass.com/78950x.html (65 Q&A dumps)

Also, you can download the Avaya 78950X exam questions and answers above: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lqyGgfE3GVR2Kq541NhaSumVP7x-TU8-/

Download the latest version of the Lead4Pass des-4122 exam dumps now: https://www.lead4pass.com/des-4122.html to help you prepare and pass the des-4122 DCS-IE exam as quickly as possible.

Lead4Pass des-4122 exam dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine to prepare for the des-4122 DCS-IE exam in advance, covering a total of 60 exam questions and answers, covering the complete actual exam questions.

[Free Q1-Q13] Download the latest updated EMC des-4122 dumps PDF:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1B3H71c_SnPOaWJgQXYAp67hQ8OFulaNI/

Latest Updated EMC des-4122 Dumps Exam Questions and answers:

Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam name	From	Previous issue
13	Sep 19, 2022	Specialist – Implementation Engineer PowerEdge Version 2.0 (DES-4122)	Lead4Pass	May 22, 2022

QUESTION 1:

CORRECT TEXT

For a temporary migration task the CPU core count on the Dell EMC PowerEdge R640 server needs to be reduced to 8 because the installed application will not work due to license restrictions. Use the simulator to apply the change so the application can be installed.

When you have finished using the simulator, click Next.

A. No answer
B. Place Holder
C. Place Holder
D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A technician needs to change the iDRAC password on a Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G server in a lights-out datacenter.

The be rebooted because it is in production. The iDRAC is configured with the default credentials How could the technician change the iDRAC password?

A. SupportAssist Enterprise
B. iDRAC Web GUI
C. OpenManage Server Administrator
D. Virtual Console; press F2 after rebooting system

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

DRAG DROP

Match each status LED indicator on the Dell EMC 14G PowerEdge server with its corresponding condition.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4:

What is a key feature introduced in OpenManage Mobile v2.0?

A. Access servers remotely through OME
B. Access SupportAssist reports
C. Access a Virtual Console (VNC over SSH) securely
D. Access iDRAC remotely

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

An engineer needs to install an additional PSU on an existing, single PSU Dell EMC PowerEdge R740. They complete the initial installation and cabling procedures. They connect an AC cable and the power distribution unit produces normal AC output. The engineer checks power management and sees that the new PSU is in a Failed state.

What task should be completed to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Confirm the System Input Power CAP is not set to Low
B. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+1
C. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+0
D. Verify the new PSU is the same type and wattage rating

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

A technician installs eight servers into a fully operational rack with top of rack switch Each server has a quad 1Gb NIC and redundant power supplies The company uses iDRAC in shared LOM mode with LOM1 as the selected NIC

What should the technician do to verify iDRAC connectivity on each server?

A. iDRAC Datacenter license is installed.
B. Ethernet port LOM1 is cabled and the link light is green.
C. iDRAC dedicated NIC port is cabled and the link light is green
D. iDRAC Enterprise license is installed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

What must be done before upgrading OMSA from the 32-bit to the 64-bit version?

A. Save the license file
B. Disable UAC
C. Back up the configuration
D. Uninstall the earlier version

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

How can a technician know whether IDRAC9 System Lockdown mode is enabled?

A. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

B. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

C. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

D. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Does an engineer want to fully leverage Microsoft Windows Server 2016 for TPM-based guarded host deployment of a 14G server Which BIOS settings need to be used for installing the Windows server?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

Starting from which Dell EMC PowerEdge server hardware generation is the Micro SD card in the IDSDM/vFlash module supported?

A. 11G
B. 12G
C. 13G
D. 14G

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

What are key values related to systems management when deploying OpenManage Enterprise wit Dell EMC PowerEdge servers?

A. Automate Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Simple and effective

B. Simplify Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Fee-based license

C. Simplify Fee-based license Agent-free Management Secure

D. Simplify Unify Automate Secure

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

What is a characteristic of out-of-band management?

A. Dedicated device
B. Agent-based
C. Less secure
D. Dependent upon OS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is the Open Compute Project (OCP) card used for in a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. Flexibility to choose interconnects
B. Fixed networking card
C. Consume a PCIe slot
D. Provide a hot-swap component

Correct Answer: B

…

[Free Q1-Q13] Download the latest updated Cisco des-4122 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1B3H71c_SnPOaWJgQXYAp67hQ8OFulaNI/

Lead4Pass des-4122 exam dumps have been updated to the latest version, proven, real and effective. And shared the above EMC des-4122 Dumps Exam Questions, you can use these questions to help you practice and improve yourself.

You are welcome to download the 60-question des-4122 exam questions and answers: https://www.lead4pass.com/des-4122.html, to help you pass the des-4122 DCS-IE exam with 100% success.

The newly updated Juniper JN0-348 dumps contains 92 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the JN0-348 dumps PDF and JN0-348 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

You are welcome to download the latest Juniper JN0-348 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/jn0-348.html, Lead4Pass JN0-348 dumps serve all candidates taking the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam and guarantee you 100% Successfully passed the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

Download the Juniper JN0-348 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1QwtzYtZLRnolPQj748dbsLy28lLkUFQo/

Share the latest Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

Which statement is correct about IS-IS link state PDUs?

A. They are used to maintain link-state database synchronization.

B. They are used to establish adjacencies.

C. They are used to build the link-state database.

D. They are used to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

Which Junos feature allows you to combine multiple interfaces into a single bundle?

A. VRRP

B. Virtual Chassis

C. LAG

D. NSB

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

Which protocol prevents loops and calculates the best path through a switched network that contains redundant paths?

A. VRRP

B. STP

C. DHCP

D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

What are two advantages of a point-to-point OSPF adjacency? (Choose two.)

A. Only a DR is elected.

B. No type 1 LSAs are generated.

C. No type 2 LSAs are generated.

D. There is quicker neighbor establishment.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 5:

Which two characteristics are true for EBGP peerings? (Choose two.)

A. EBGP peers must be directly connected.

B. EBGP connects peer devices in the same autonomous system.

C. EBGP connects peer devices in two different autonomous systems.

D. EBGP peers can be connected over a multihop connection.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 6:

Which two port security features use the DHCP snooping database for additional port security? (Choose two.)

A. dynamic ARP inspection

B. MACsec

C. IP Source Guard

D. MAC learning

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 7:

Which two statements are correct regarding the root bridge election process when using STP? (Choose two.)

A. A lower system MAC address is preferred.

B. A higher bridge priority is preferred.

C. A lower bridge priority is preferred.

D. A higher system MAC address is preferred.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 8:

What are two characteristics of OSPF ABRs? (Choose two.)

A. ABRs transmit routing information between the backbone and other areas.

B. ABRs cannot be part of the backbone and another area at the same time.

C. ABRs inject routing information from outside the OSPF domain.

D. ABRs link two OSPF areas.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 9:

Which statement is correct about trunk ports?

A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic.

B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic.

C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned.

D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address using DHCP.

Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device.

B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database.

C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI.

D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.)

A. a stable network topology

B. a neighbor configured with BFD

C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart

D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

You configured a GRE tunnel that traverses a path using default MTU settings. You want to ensure that packets are not dropped of fragmented.

In this scenario, what is the maximum packet size that would traverse the GRE tunnel?

A. 1500

B. 1400

C. 1524

D. 1476

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

When configuring firewall filters, which function does the interface-specific parameter enable on an EX Series switch?

A. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-specific counters.

B. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-specific counters.

C. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-based filters.

D. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-based firewall filters.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.)

A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination.

B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

C. BGP attributes are always optional.

D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 15:

Which static route next-hop value indicates that the packet will be silently dropped?

A. resolve

B. discard

C. reject

D. next-table

Correct Answer: B

…

Download the Juniper JN0-348 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1QwtzYtZLRnolPQj748dbsLy28lLkUFQo/

The above is only a part of Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions and answers, you can use the above exam questions and answers to improve yourself, not only that, we welcome you to download the latest
Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions: https://www.lead4pass.com/jn0-348.html (Total Questions: 92 Q&A), help you truly pass the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

More IT certification blogs: [Amazon]awsexamdumps.com, [Oracle]oraclefreedumps.com, [Cisco]ciscofreedumps.com, [Microsoft]examdumpsbase.com, [Citrix]citrixexamdumps.com
[CompTIA]comptiafreedumps.com, [Juniper]vmwarefreedumps.com, [IBM]ibmexamdumps.com, [HP]hpexamdumps.com, [NetApp]NetAppexamdumps.com, [Juniper]juniperexamdumps.com
[Fortinet]fortinetexamdumps.com

Lead4Pass 201 Dumps is the best solution to pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam.

The F5 201 Dumps with 91 up-to-date exam questions and answers have been released from Lead4Pass.com, with PDF files and a VCE mock exam engine, as well as 365 days of free updates to help you truly pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration exam.

Take advantage of the F5 201 – TMOS Administration exam solution, using F5 201 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/201.html, to help you win.

Experience some F5 201 Dumps exam questions online:

Tips: The best experience is the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?

A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.

C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.

D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

QUESTION 2:

Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?

A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.

B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP.

C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.

D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP.

QUESTION 3:

Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)

A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.

B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.

C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.

D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.

E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

QUESTION 4:

A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address

when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

A. 200.200.1.1

B. 150.150.10.11

C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system

D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system

QUESTION 5:

Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose three.)

A. CLIENT_DATA

B. SERVER_DATA

C. HTTP_REQUEST

D. HTTP_RESPONSE

E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED

F. SERVER_SELECTED

G. SERVER_CONNECTED

QUESTION 6:

Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server\’s destination port were not 443?

A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server\’s port was not port 443.

B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.

C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended.

D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port
443.

QUESTION 7:

Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)

A. The bigtop command displays the status.

B. Only the active system\’s configuration screens are active.

C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt.

D. The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.

QUESTION 8:

The incoming client IP address is 205.12.45.52. The last five connections have been sent to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the virtual server and pool definitions and the statistics shown in the graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80

B. 10.10.20.2:80

C. 10.10.20.3:80

D. 10.10.20.4:80

E. 10.10.20.5:80

QUESTION 9:

Which statement is true regarding failover?

A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.

B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.

C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.

D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.

QUESTION 10:

Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use.

A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.

B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.

C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.

D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes.

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor

B. inherit the node\’s monitor

C. configure a default monitor

D. assign a monitor to the specific member

E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

QUESTION 12:

How is MAC masquerading configured?

A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.

B. Specify the desired MAC address for each selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems.

D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

QUESTION 13:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Answers:

A

C

CE

C

ACE

C

AC

A

B

C

ADE

A

C

[Google Drive] Download the F5 201 Dumps exam questions and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1cj81qXpy3vJbuAugA3d_VWV0tNO5JqqA/

I can confidently tell all candidates: Lead4Pass 201 Dumps exam questions can help you improve your study efficiency, save time and exam cost, and ultimately help you successfully pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam.

Based on the above, so the best solution for the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam is to practice F5 201 Dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/201.html (91 Q&A).

Using 010-151 dumps can help you successfully pass the Cisco DCTECH certification exam on your first attempt.

Because 010-151 dumps have many successful advantages:

1. Lightweight Learning Tool (PDF+VCE)
2. More free usage time (365 days Free Update)
3. Covers all Cisco DCTECH practical exam questions and answers, with explanations of difficult problems
4. Have a professional Cisco technical team service

So why not use 010-151 dumps to help you easily and successfully pass the exam? And Lead4Pass, as the provider of 010-151 dumps, has many years of industry reputation, is the industry leader, and is trustworthy, what else do you have to worry about?

Therefore, it is strongly recommended that you use the 010-151 dumps exam material https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html, which is up to date throughout the year, to prepare you for a career leap.

More detailed 010-151 DCTECH certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Certification: CCT Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $125 USD
Number of Questions: 65-75
010-151 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html (Total Questions: 136 Q&A)

Cisco 010-151 exam questions online practice test:

Question 1:

Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. iSCSI

D. FCoE

Question 2:

Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?

A. recovery

B. redundancy

C. resiliency

D. security

E. storage

Question 3:

The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?

A. 10 Mb/s

B. 100 Mb/s

C. 1000 Mb/s

D. 10000 Mb/s

Question 4:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Question 5:

What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?

A. 100 Mb/s

B. 1 Gb/s

C. 10 Gb/s

D. 100 Gb/s

Question 6:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Question 7:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Question 8:

What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A. Amber

B. Red

C. Blinking amber

D. Blinking red

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?

A. HDD 1

B. TFP Module

C. SuperCap Module

D. CPU 2

E. CMOS Battery

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

A. A is the power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is the system status LED; D is the network link activity LED.

B. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

C. A is the system status LED; B is the network link activity LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

D. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the identification button and LED; D is the power button and power status LED.

Question 11:

Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors

C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Question 12:

Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548P

B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP

C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

D. Cisco Nexus 5596T

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?

A. MDS 9509

B. MDS 9513

C. MDS 9710

D. MDS 9506

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?

A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server

B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server

C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server

D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Question 15:

Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?

A. first-generation supervisor module

B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)

C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)

D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

C

B

B

B

D

AE

C

C

D

A

C

D

C

C

C

CCT Data Center certification exam The only core exam (010-151 DCTECH) that focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco Unified Computing Systems and servers.
Select Lead4Pass 010-151 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/010-151.html, Helping you 100% pass the Cisco 010-151 DCTECH certification exam.

4A0-N01 Dumps have been updated to provide Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam Core Questions and Answers, the truly valid Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials.

Now, visit the Lead4pass 4A0-N01 Dumps page: https://www.lead4pass.com/4a0-n01.html to get the really effective Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials to help you successfully pass the exam on your first attempt, The page provides a variety of learning methods (PDF, VCE, PDF+VCE), which are very friendly and help you to learn easily and successfully face the real exam room.

4A0-N01 Exam Details:

Vendor: Nokia

Exam Code: 4A0-N01

Exam Name: Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam

Certification: Nuage Networks Professional – Software-Defined Datacenter (NNP SD-DC)

Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A

Exam Duration: 90 Minutes

Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45-minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.

Number of Questions: 40

Language: English

Price: $125 US

4A0-N01 Free dumps online reading:

QUESTION 1:

To auto-instantiate services on a 7750 DCI, which protocol needs to be enabled between the 7750 SR and VSD?

A. SNMP
B. Openflow
C. XMPP
D. BGP EVPN

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What statement regarding VSD user management is TRUE?

A. We can create CMS user groups for each enterprise.
B. Each enterprise user belongs to only one user group.
C. Open LDAP and Active Directory can be integrated into VSD.
D. LDAP integration is configured at the VSD global level, and it is not a configurable enterprise.

Correct Answer: B

Easy as adding them to a specific user group.

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/target/using/administer/manage-users/enterprise/ property-channel.html

QUESTION 3:

What statement about stateful ACL entries is FALSE?

A. They can track both TCP and UDP flows.
B. They can be created in either ingress or egress directions.
C. A packet in the direction of the stateful ACL rules will automatically create a “related” rule in the reverse direction.
D. The automatically created rules will not go away until the ACL is manually deactivated and reactivated.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

What statement about Open vSwitch is TRUE?

A. It is a standard virtual switch that can run on any operating system.
B. It can only be configured using Openflow by an SDN controller.
C. It provides tunneling mechanisms, for example, VXLAN.
D. It supports most of the open protocols, for example, OSPF, and BGP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

Which of the following is NOT a goal of NFV?

A. Reduce equipment cost
B. Faster time-to-market for new services
C. Efficiency through automation
D. Increase network bandwidth

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

What statement regarding the VRS-G is FALSE?

A. The VRS-G is the software VXLAN/VLAN gateway of the Nuage VCS solution.
B. The VRS-G is deployed on a hypervisor, following the same deployment requirements as a regular VRS.
C. Virtual machines created on the hypervisor are attached to access ports on VRS-G.
D. The network ports on VRS-G point towards the Nuage overlay VXLAN network.

Correct Answer: B

This permits the bridging of the hypervisor-focused overlay networking and physical devices in the data center.

Reference: https://jujucharms.com/nuage-vrsg/

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the diagram.

What is the correct sequence of events for a VM to be instantiated, and for its required network connectivity to be created with the Nuage VCS solution?

a. Network domain and policy templates are defined on VSD.
b. VSC queries VSD on network service and policies.
c. VSD provides VSC with network service and policies.
d. VRS agent informs VSC of the new VM placement.
e. VSC deploys policy to applicable VRS agents.
f. VM instantiated on the hypervisor.

A. a->b->c->d->e->f
B. a->b->c->f->d->-e
C. a->f->d->b->c->-e
D. f->d->b->a>c->-e

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following is a solution to create virtual machines in which the server runs the hypervisor as a specialized operating system and, as a consequence, there is no need for a conventional operating system?

A. Kernel
B. Container
C. Native hypervisor
D. Hosted hypervisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

What is the difference between host vPort and bridge vPort?

A. A host vPort is provisioned on VRS-G, while a bridge vPort is provisioned on VSG.
B. A host vPort is provisioned for VLAN traffic, while a bridge vPort is for VxLAN traffic.
C. A host vPort only supports one VLAN, while a bridge vPort can be configured with multiple VLANs.
D. A host vPort requires static MAC address configuration, while a bridge vPort learns MAC addresses dynamically.

Correct Answer: A

Bridge vPort hosted in Nuage VSG/VSA Gateways Software, VRS and VRS-G hosted vPort

Reference: https://matscloud.blogspot.com/2017/06/nuage-networks-vsp-deep-dive.html

QUESTION 10:

What statement is TRUE regarding multiple virtual IP addresses assigned to a single vPort?

A. The virtual IP addresses can be in a different subnet than the VM interface IP address.
B. All virtual IP addresses of a vPort must be in the same subnet.
C. One of the virtual IP addresses can be the same as the VM interface IP address.
D. Every virtual IP address must be associated with a virtual MAC, which differs from the VM interface MAC address.

Correct Answer: A

If you have only one public IP address available, and you want to host multiple servers, use aVIP.

QUESTION 11:

What is NOT a component of VSD?

A. Neutron
B. Statistics Engine
C. Policy Management Engine
D. RESTful API

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.nuagenetworks.net/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/
PR1507013354EN_NN_RedH_Open_Hybrid_Clouds_PartnerSolutionBrief.pdf

QUESTION 12:

What statement about statistics rules on Nuage VCS is FALSE?

A. Users can define statistics rules for domain/zones/subnets/vPorts. The rule applied to the most granular object is the one used.

B. Statistics are collected in an Elasticsearch statistics engine and are aggregated over hours, days, and months.

C. Statistics are pushed from VRS up to VSC, which in turn sends them to the VSD stats engine.

D. When a TCA threshlod is exceeded, an event is displayed in the UI and a message is sent on the JMS bus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is NOT a function of the VSC?

A. CMS integration
B. SDN controller
C. BGP federation
D. XMPP communication with VSD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/networking/sdn/definitions/nuage-networks-vsc/

……

4A0-N01 Free dumps online download:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qcxAr8dtqpCz6NIL3T4XRTRFl_0MJgym/

Get 64 4A0-N01 exam questions and answers: Click Here

Are you preparing for the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x exam? F50-531 Dumps has developed exam questions and answers based on the exam core question types.

On the Lead4Pass F50-531 dumps page https://www.lead4pass.com/f50-531.html, you can find a variety of download buttons we provide for you, using both PDF and VCE tools provided by Lead4Pass
Study the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x exam core questions we have prepared for you to help you pass the exam successfully the first time.

Next, read F5 F50-531 free dumps to help you choose more…

QUESTION 1:

If a client\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?

A. The connection request is not processed.
B. The connection request is sent to a topology server.
C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member.
D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members.
whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?

A. That support is never available.
B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs.
C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN.
D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. CLI access to the serial console port
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 4:

A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection.
D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?

A. the system\’s dossier
B. the system\’s hostname
C. the system\’s base license
D. the system\’s purchase order number

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D, and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
F. It cannot be determined with the information given.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)

A. SNAT\’s are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Profile definition.
C. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D. SNAT\’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?

A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system.

B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.

C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?

A. host names
B. system clocks
C. profile definitions
D. VLAN fail-safe settings
E. MAC masquerade addresses

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor
B. inherit the node\’s monitor
C. configure a default monitor
D. assign a monitor to the specific member
E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member, or node.
B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test.
C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s members passed the test.
D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool\’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13:

When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?

A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception.
D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server.

Correct Answer: B

……

Download F5 F50-531 free dumps online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Z-84oO-8-KvG3KQ6LvvLPh_raIcUqfIC/view?usp=sharing

View 99 F5 F50-531 Exam Questions: learn more

The latest update of Cisco 300-435 exam dumps in September is guaranteed to be true and effective!
You can get some free Cisco 300-435 exam practice questions online, or download the Cisco 300-435 exam PDF.
All free exam questions come from Lead4Pass 300-435 Exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-435.html (Total Questions: 107 Q&A).

Free Cisco 300-435 exam PDF

The free Cisco 300-435 exam pdf is part of the Lead4Pass 300-435 exam dumps.
The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

Cisco 300-435 exam practice questions free online practice

QUESTION 1

The Cisco DNA Center Sites API must be used to add a device to a site, but only the site name is available. Which API
call must be used to retrieve the site identifier so that the device can be properly added to the network?

A. /dna/intent/api/site/siteId
B. /dna/intent/api/site
C. /dna/intent/api/v1/site
D. /dna/intent/api/v1/site/siteName

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-blogs/welcome-to-the-dna-center-api-support-community/bap/3663632

QUESTION 2

Which tag is required when establishing a YANG-push subscription with a Cisco IOS XE device?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/1612/b_1612_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco
IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible “create int” task?

A. with_items: “{{intlist}}”
B. with_parent: “{{intlist}}”
C. with_list: “{{intlist}}”
D. with_groups: “{{intlist}}”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer needs to create a new network using the Meraki API. Which HTTP action to the URL

A. GET
B. POST
C. PUT
D. ADD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://httpstatuses.com/201

QUESTION 5

Which path do calls begin with to implement Cisco DNA Center Intent APIs?

A. /intent
B. /dna/v1
C. /dna/api/intent/v1/
D. /dna/system/api/v1/

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/dna-center/#!device-provisioning/endpoints-and-methods-used

QUESTION 6

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the Ansible playbook to apply the
configuration to an interface on a Cisco IOS XE device. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file
named “device_status.py”. The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of
Do commands insert the project into Git?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.github.com/en/github/importing-your-projects-to-github/adding-an-existing-project-to-github-usingthe-command-line

QUESTION 8

A configuration has been made to add to every switch port a new port description. The script worked initially, but after a few seconds, an HTTP 429 status code was received. What causes this error message from the Meraki cloud?

A. The wrong API key is used to query the data.
B. The rate limit of the Cisco Meraki API is exceeded.
C. The API key has expired.
D. The device goes offline while you poll the API dashboard.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Developers-APIs/my-API-Limit-exceed-and-key-is-not-working/td-p/64034

QUESTION 9

Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?

A. configuration changes are automatically activated
B. uses the YANG data models to communicate
C. supports JSON and data encoding
D. validates the content of a candidate datastore

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/169/b_169_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.html

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The
three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error?

A. The API user in Cisco DNA does not have to write privileges on the devices.
B. The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15.
C. The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format.
D. Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional
Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.

A. bfd/synced/sessions?

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Real-Time_Monitoring_APIs/BFD

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging
application when a rogue AP is detected on the network. The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the
alert. A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:
send_to_application(message)
The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val. Which Python
Does the code complete the task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

For numbers in the range, a value is required for the application to send the alert. Besides are also included.

QUESTION 13

What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted
B. non-cacheable
C. stateless
D. implemented over HTTP
E. parameters passed in the headers

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8-0/MSE_REST_API/Guide/Cisco_MSE_REST_API_G
uide/REST_Introduction.pdf

Summarize:

Share some of the latest updated Cisco 300-435 exam practice questions for free. You can practice the test online or download the PDF to learn. All exam questions and answers come from Lead4Pass 300-435 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-435.html (PDF +VCE).
Lead4Pass has a complete Cisco 300-435 exam dumps. With PDF and VCE two modes, you can choose any! Guarantee to help you successfully pass the exam.

ps.

The free Cisco 300-435 exam pdf is part of the Lead4Pass 300-435 exam dumps.
The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

The latest update of Cisco 300-410 exam dumps in September is guaranteed to be true and effective!
You can get some free Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions online, or download the Cisco 300-410 exam PDF.
All free exam questions come from Lead4Pass 300-410 Exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html (Total Questions: 231 Q&A).

Free Cisco 300-410 exam PDF

The free Cisco 300-410 exam pdf is part of the Lead4Pass 300-410 exam dumps.
The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions free online practice

QUESTION 1

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or
influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. packet switching
C. policy-based routing
D. forwarding information base

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an
IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing the configuration, the customer complained about not receiving a summary route with a specific loopback address.
Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

A. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.
B. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.
C. Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.
D. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.
E. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Correct Answer: AD

When you configure an EIGRP summary route, all networks that fall within the range of your summary are suppressed
and no longer advertised on the interface. Only the summary route is advertised. But if we want to advertise a network
that has been suppressed along with the summary route then we can use leak-map feature. The below commands will
fix the configuration in this question: R1(config)#access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 R1(config)#route-map Leak-Route
permit 10 // this command will also remove the “route_map Leak-Route deny 10” command. R1(config-route-map)#match IP address 1

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the
summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.
B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.
C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.
D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Correct Answer: C

The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.
It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed
routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:
The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to
find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet
exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibits. All the serial links between R1, R2, and R3 have the same bandwidth. Users on the
192.168.1.0/24 networks report slow response times while they access resources on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a
traceroute is run on the path, it shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1
and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator do to fix the slowness?

A. Add a static route on R1 using the next-hop of R3.
B. Remove the static route on R1.
C. Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5.
D. Redistribute the R1 static route to EIGRP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

A. multi-paths eibgp 2
B. maximum-paths 2
C. maximum-paths ibgp 2
D. multi-paths 2

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_vpn_multipath.html

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?

A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions

Correct Answer: D

The class-map NMS in the exhibit did not classify traffic into specific protocols so many packets were dropped. We
should create a class map to classify the receiving traffic. It is also a recommendation of CoPP/CPP policy:
“Developing a CPP policy starts with the classification of the control plane traffic. To that end, the control plane traffic
needs to be first identified and separated into different class maps.”
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

QUESTION 7

An engineer configured a company\’s multiple area OSPF Head Office routers and Site A Cisco routers with VRF lite.
Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone:
Head Office and Site A IP cef ip vrf ABC rd 101:101! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding abc IP address
172.16.16.X 255.255.255.252 ! router OSPF 1 vrf ABC log-adjacency-changes network 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3, 4, 5, and 7 are installed at the Site A router.
Which configuration resolves this issue?

A. configure capability vrf-lite-on Site A and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
B. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
C. configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 of
ABC
D. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the
destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.
B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.
C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.
D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Correct Answer: C

The AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A router is receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routes in AS 690.
What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?

A. The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250.
B. The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map.
C. The route map is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3se/3850/irgxe-3se-3850-book/irg-prefix-filter.html

QUESTION 10

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

A. 20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
B. 32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
C. 20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit
D. 32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Correct Answer: A

The first 20 bits constitute a label, which can have 2^20 values. Next comes a 3-bit value called Traffic Class. It was
formerly called as experimental (EXP) field. Now it has been renamed to Traffic Class (TC). This field is used for QoS-related functions. Ingress router can classify the packet according to some criterion and assign a 3-bit value to this field. If an incoming packet is marked with some IP Precedence or DSCP value and the ingress router may use such a field to assign an FEC to the packet. The next bit is the Stack bit which is called the bottom-of-stack bit. This field is used when more than one label is assigned to a packet, as in the case of MPLS VPNs or MPLS TE. The next byte is the MPLS TTL field which serves the same purpose as that of the IP TTL byte in the IP header
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5462

QUESTION 11

Refer to Exhibit.

Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?

A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF.
B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF
C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 1.
D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 20.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused
instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when
redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow
when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in the OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing
domain.
D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Correct Answer: A

When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing
loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP
from being redistributed again into the OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:

QUESTION 13

An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP
phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?

A. BOOTP port 67
B. DHCP option 66
C. BOOTP port 68
D. DHCP option 69

Correct Answer: B

Cisco 300-410 related exam list

Here is a list of Cisco 300-410 related exams, including exam PDF, exam practice questions, and complete exam questions and answers

Exam Name	Exam PDF	Exam Practice	Exam Dumps
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)	300-410 PDF	300-410 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)	300-415 PDF	300-415 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-415.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)	300-420 PDF	300-420 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-420.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)	300-425 PDF	300-425 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-425.html
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)	300-430 PDF	300-430 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-430.html
Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)	300-435 PDF	300-435 Exam Practice	https://www.lead4pass.com/300-435.html

Summarize:

Share some of the latest updated Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions for free. You can practice the test online or download the PDF to learn. All exam questions and answers come from Lead4Pass 300-410 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html (PDF +VCE). Lead4Pass has a complete Cisco 300-410 exam dumps. With PDF and VCE two modes, you can choose any! Guarantee to help you successfully pass the exam.

ps

The free Cisco 300-410 exam pdf is part of the Lead4Pass 300-410 exam dumps.
The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

“Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications” Exam N10-007. Here you can get the latest free CompTIA N10-007 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

The latest update of CompTIA N10-007 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A network technician wants to baseline traffic flows on a specific network. Which of the following will provide the
GREATEST level of detail?
A. Network flow information
B. SNMP traps
C. Debug level syslog
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps
No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\\’s workstation The network
administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network
administrator also notices the following.
Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:
1.
Pins 5 and 7 are short
2.
The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch
1.
The VLAN is set correctly
2.
The port is not disabled
3.
The duplex”;speed settings are correct
4.
Port LEOs are off for that port.
5.
The port is set to untagged.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?
A. Bad switchport
B. Incorrect pinout
C. Open/short
D. VLAN mismatch
E. Distance limitation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A company recently upgraded a legacy firewall to an NGFW. Which of the following can be deployed without extra
hardware to restrict access to offending websites?
A. A UTM appliance
B. Content filtering
C. An IPS
D. A proxy server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A network technician configures a firewall to block only certain IP addresses from accessing the Internet. All users are
reporting that they are unable to access the Internet.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
A. Incorrectly configured ACL
B. Implicit allow statement
C. SMTP requests are being denied
D. All protocols are being allowed in
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A technician has designed a LAN with redundant switches. Which of the following should be configured to ensure
network availability?
A. VLAN
B. Scope options
C. Spanning tree
D. Flood guard
Correct Answer: C

Get complete and free CompTIA N10-007 exam questions and answers

N10-007 exam: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:

• Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
• Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
• Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
• Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient

Follow the link to find more information about the https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-007.html exam.

Watch the CompTIA N10-007 video tutorial online

Table of Contents:

• Latest CompTIA N10-007 pdf
• Test your CompTIA N10-007 exam level
• Related N10-007 Popular Exam resources
• Get Lead4Pass Coupons (12% OFF)
• What are the advantages of Lead4pass?

Latest CompTIA N10-007 pdf

^[PDF] Free CompTIA N10-007 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1rJQW9Ebqvlq8mKmXytaU5Xq0kj2UqFI5

Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications：https://www.comptia.org/certifications/network

Free CompTIA N10-007 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following would Kim, a technician, do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses?
A. IPS
B. Application layer firewall
C. IDS
D. An unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Tenants access multiple wireless networks in a building. Users report intermittent connectivity. Which of the following is
the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The channels are overlapping with other wireless networks and should be changed.
B. The SSIDs are incompatible and should be renamed.
C. The users have incompatible wireless network cards and should upgrade.
D. The default idle period for logoff is too short and should be changed to a longer limit.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent issues with VoIP call quality. A throughput tester can help assess
the functionality of which of the following?
A. LLDP
B. VLAN tagging
C. QoS
D. SIP trunking
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been
tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing. Which of the following should the company
deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service?
A. QoS
B. Load balancing
C. High availability
D. Fiber optics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
company wants the public to be able to connect to the wireless network with minimal security, but not be able to connect
to the private internal network. Which of the following firewall rules would BEST accomplish this?
A. Content filtering on the wireless access point
B. Allow traffic from the wireless access point
C. Block traffic from the wireless access point
D. Packet filtering on the wireless access point
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue access point?
A. Port scan
B. Packet sniffer
C. IPS
D. IDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A user reports a network failure on a computer. The technician determines that the computer and NIC are operating
properly. Which of the following tools can the technician use to trace the network cabling back to the punch down
block?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Punch down tool
D. Toner probe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following
steps should the network technician take NEXT?
A. Test the possible solution
B. Q1 the users
C. Determine what has changed
D. Document the theory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network technician is assisting the security team with some traffic captures. The security team wants to capture all
traffic on a single subnet between the router and the core switch. To do so, the team must ensure there is only a single
collision and broadcast domain between the router and the switch from which they will collect traffic. Which of the
following should the technician install to BEST meet the goal?
A. Bridge
B. Crossover cable
C. Hub
D. Media converter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following problems is MOST likely to arise when configuring an IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel?
A. Routing loop
B. MTU black hole
C. Framing errors
D. SYN flood
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Joe, an employee at a large regional bank, wants to receive company email on his personal smartphone and table: To
authenticate on the mail server, he must first a custom security application on those mobile services. Which of the
following policies would BEST enforce this requirement?
A. Incident response policy
B. BYOD policy
C. DLP policy
D. Remote access policy
Correct Answer: B

Related N10-007 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	CompTIA	lead4pass	Lead4Pass Total Questions
CompTIA Network+	lead4pass N10-007 dumps pdf	lead4pass N10-007 youtube	Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications	https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-007.html	624 Q&A
	lead4pass N10-006 dumps pdf	lead4pass N10-006 youtube	https://www.comptia.org/certifications/network	https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-006.html	30 Q&A

Get Lead4Pass Coupons(12% OFF)

What are the advantages of Lead4pass?

Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from Cisco, CompTIA, Microsoft, IBM, Oracle, etc.
We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader!
Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!

Summarize:

It’s not easy to pass the CompTIA exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. Lead4pass provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.

[Useful Dumps] Which is the Latest Questions for Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)