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QUESTION 1:
If a client\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?
A. The connection request is not processed. B. The connection request is sent to a topology server. C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member. D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members. whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?
A. That support is never available. B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs. C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN. D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3:
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A. CLI access to the serial console port B. SSH access to the management port C. SSH access to any of the switch ports D. HTTP access to the management port E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports F. HTTPS access to the management port G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 4:
A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?
A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection. B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection. C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection. D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A. the system\’s dossier B. the system\’s hostname C. the system\’s base license D. the system\’s purchase order number
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D, and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?
A. 10.10.20.1:80 B. 10.10.20.2:80 C. 10.10.20.3:80 D. 10.10.20.4:80 E. 10.10.20.5:80 F. It cannot be determined with the information given.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7:
Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)
A. SNAT\’s are enabled on all VLANs, by default. B. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Profile definition. C. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Virtual Server definition. D. SNAT\’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8:
Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing config sync all?
A. The process should always be run from the standby system.
B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.
C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.
D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?
A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system.
B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.
C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.
D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?
A. host names B. system clocks C. profile definitions D. VLAN fail-safe settings E. MAC masquerade addresses
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)
A. inherit the pool\’s monitor B. inherit the node\’s monitor C. configure a default monitor D. assign a monitor to the specific member E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12:
The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member, or node. B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test. C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s members passed the test. D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool\’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13:
When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile. B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common. C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception. D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server.
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QUESTION 1
The Cisco DNA Center Sites API must be used to add a device to a site, but only the site name is available. Which API call must be used to retrieve the site identifier so that the device can be properly added to the network?
A. /dna/intent/api/site/siteId B. /dna/intent/api/site C. /dna/intent/api/v1/site D. /dna/intent/api/v1/site/siteName
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible “create int” task?
A. with_items: “{{intlist}}” B. with_parent: “{{intlist}}” C. with_list: “{{intlist}}” D. with_groups: “{{intlist}}”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to create a new network using the Meraki API. Which HTTP action to the URL
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the Ansible playbook to apply the configuration to an interface on a Cisco IOS XE device. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file named “device_status.py”. The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of Do commands insert the project into Git?
A configuration has been made to add to every switch port a new port description. The script worked initially, but after a few seconds, an HTTP 429 status code was received. What causes this error message from the Meraki cloud?
A. The wrong API key is used to query the data. B. The rate limit of the Cisco Meraki API is exceeded. C. The API key has expired. D. The device goes offline while you poll the API dashboard.
Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?
A. configuration changes are automatically activated B. uses the YANG data models to communicate C. supports JSON and data encoding D. validates the content of a candidate datastore
Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error?
A. The API user in Cisco DNA does not have to write privileges on the devices. B. The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15. C. The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format. D. Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
FILL BLANK Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.
Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging application when a rogue AP is detected on the network. The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the alert. A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration: send_to_application(message) The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val. Which Python Does the code complete the task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
For numbers in the range, a value is required for the application to send the alert. Besides are also included.
QUESTION 13
What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)
A. unencrypted B. non-cacheable C. stateless D. implemented over HTTP E. parameters passed in the headers
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QUESTION 1
Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess B. packet switching C. policy-based routing D. forwarding information base
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing the configuration, the customer complained about not receiving a summary route with a specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)
A. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3. B. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252. C. Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route. D. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1. E. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.
Correct Answer: AD
When you configure an EIGRP summary route, all networks that fall within the range of your summary are suppressed and no longer advertised on the interface. Only the summary route is advertised. But if we want to advertise a network that has been suppressed along with the summary route then we can use leak-map feature. The below commands will fix the configuration in this question: R1(config)#access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 R1(config)#route-map Leak-Route permit 10 // this command will also remove the “route_map Leak-Route deny 10” command. R1(config-route-map)#match IP address 1
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?
A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas. B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table. C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated. D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.
Correct Answer: C
The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary. It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is: The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits. All the serial links between R1, R2, and R3 have the same bandwidth. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 networks report slow response times while they access resources on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a traceroute is run on the path, it shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1 and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator do to fix the slowness?
A. Add a static route on R1 using the next-hop of R3. B. Remove the static route on R1. C. Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5. D. Redistribute the R1 static route to EIGRP.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?
A. multi-paths eibgp 2 B. maximum-paths 2 C. maximum-paths ibgp 2 D. multi-paths 2
A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map. B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing. C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools D. Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
The class-map NMS in the exhibit did not classify traffic into specific protocols so many packets were dropped. We should create a class map to classify the receiving traffic. It is also a recommendation of CoPP/CPP policy: “Developing a CPP policy starts with the classification of the control plane traffic. To that end, the control plane traffic needs to be first identified and separated into different class maps.” Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices
QUESTION 7
An engineer configured a company\’s multiple area OSPF Head Office routers and Site A Cisco routers with VRF lite. Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone: Head Office and Site A IP cef ip vrf ABC rd 101:101! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding abc IP address 172.16.16.X 255.255.255.252 ! router OSPF 1 vrf ABC log-adjacency-changes network 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3, 4, 5, and 7 are installed at the Site A router. Which configuration resolves this issue?
A. configure capability vrf-lite-on Site A and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC B. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC C. configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 of ABC D. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?
A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes. B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route. C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF. D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.
Correct Answer: C
The AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. A router is receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routes in AS 690. What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?
A. The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250. B. The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map. C. The route map is applied in the wrong direction. D. The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.
A. 20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL B. 32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL C. 20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit D. 32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit
Correct Answer: A
The first 20 bits constitute a label, which can have 2^20 values. Next comes a 3-bit value called Traffic Class. It was formerly called as experimental (EXP) field. Now it has been renamed to Traffic Class (TC). This field is used for QoS-related functions. Ingress router can classify the packet according to some criterion and assign a 3-bit value to this field. If an incoming packet is marked with some IP Precedence or DSCP value and the ingress router may use such a field to assign an FEC to the packet. The next bit is the Stack bit which is called the bottom-of-stack bit. This field is used when more than one label is assigned to a packet, as in the case of MPLS VPNs or MPLS TE. The next byte is the MPLS TTL field which serves the same purpose as that of the IP TTL byte in the IP header Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5462
QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit.
Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?
A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF. B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 1. D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 20.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in the OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain. D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.
Correct Answer: A
When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP from being redistributed again into the OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:
QUESTION 13
An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?
A. BOOTP port 67 B. DHCP option 66 C. BOOTP port 68 D. DHCP option 69
Correct Answer: B
Cisco 300-410 related exam list
Here is a list of Cisco 300-410 related exams, including exam PDF, exam practice questions, and complete exam questions and answers
Exam Name
Exam PDF
Exam Practice
Exam Dumps
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
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The latest update of CompTIA N10-007 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1 A network technician wants to baseline traffic flows on a specific network. Which of the following will provide the GREATEST level of detail? A. Network flow information B. SNMP traps C. Debug level syslog D. Protocol analyzer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following. Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch: 1. Pins 5 and 7 are short 2. The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch 1. The VLAN is set correctly 2. The port is not disabled 3. The duplex”;speed settings are correct 4. Port LEOs are off for that port. 5. The port is set to untagged. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues? A. Bad switchport B. Incorrect pinout C. Open/short D. VLAN mismatch E. Distance limitation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A company recently upgraded a legacy firewall to an NGFW. Which of the following can be deployed without extra hardware to restrict access to offending websites? A. A UTM appliance B. Content filtering C. An IPS D. A proxy server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A network technician configures a firewall to block only certain IP addresses from accessing the Internet. All users are reporting that they are unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason? A. Incorrectly configured ACL B. Implicit allow statement C. SMTP requests are being denied D. All protocols are being allowed in Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A technician has designed a LAN with redundant switches. Which of the following should be configured to ensure network availability? A. VLAN B. Scope options C. Spanning tree D. Flood guard Correct Answer: C
N10-007 exam: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
QUESTION 1 Which of the following would Kim, a technician, do to monitor remote traffic through an access point? A. Enable an SNMP agent B. Enable network mapping C. Set monitoring SSID D. Select WPA2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses? A. IPS B. Application layer firewall C. IDS D. An unmanaged switch Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Tenants access multiple wireless networks in a building. Users report intermittent connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The channels are overlapping with other wireless networks and should be changed. B. The SSIDs are incompatible and should be renamed. C. The users have incompatible wireless network cards and should upgrade. D. The default idle period for logoff is too short and should be changed to a longer limit. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent issues with VoIP call quality. A throughput tester can help assess the functionality of which of the following? A. LLDP B. VLAN tagging C. QoS D. SIP trunking Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing. Which of the following should the company deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service? A. QoS B. Load balancing C. High availability D. Fiber optics Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 company wants the public to be able to connect to the wireless network with minimal security, but not be able to connect to the private internal network. Which of the following firewall rules would BEST accomplish this? A. Content filtering on the wireless access point B. Allow traffic from the wireless access point C. Block traffic from the wireless access point D. Packet filtering on the wireless access point Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following solutions will detect and disable a rogue access point? A. Port scan B. Packet sniffer C. IPS D. IDS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following cable types have a rated MAXIMUM bandwidth of 100Mbps? A. CAT3 B. CAT5 C. CAT5e D. CAT6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A user reports a network failure on a computer. The technician determines that the computer and NIC are operating properly. Which of the following tools can the technician use to trace the network cabling back to the punch down block? A. Protocol analyzer B. Multimeter C. Punch down tool D. Toner probe Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take NEXT? A. Test the possible solution B. Q1 the users C. Determine what has changed D. Document the theory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A network technician is assisting the security team with some traffic captures. The security team wants to capture all traffic on a single subnet between the router and the core switch. To do so, the team must ensure there is only a single collision and broadcast domain between the router and the switch from which they will collect traffic. Which of the following should the technician install to BEST meet the goal? A. Bridge B. Crossover cable C. Hub D. Media converter Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which of the following problems is MOST likely to arise when configuring an IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel? A. Routing loop B. MTU black hole C. Framing errors D. SYN flood Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Joe, an employee at a large regional bank, wants to receive company email on his personal smartphone and table: To authenticate on the mail server, he must first a custom security application on those mobile services. Which of the following policies would BEST enforce this requirement? A. Incident response policy B. BYOD policy C. DLP policy D. Remote access policy Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP\\’s external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results? A. The active system will note the failure in the HA table. B. The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode. C. The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode. D. The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for the network failure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.) A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ServerSSL Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license? A. the system\\’s dossier B. the system\\’s host name C. the system\\’s base license D. the system\\’s purchase order number Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Where is persistence mirroring configured? A. It is always enabled. B. It is part of a pool definition. C. It is part of a profile definition. D. It is part of a virtual server definition. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member? A. 200.200.1.1 B. 150.150.10.11 C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use. A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors. B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance. C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust. D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Where is the loadbalancing mode specified? A. within the pool definition B. within the node definition C. within the virtual server definition D. within the pool member definition Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected? A. As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur. B. Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten seconds. C. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode. D. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will maintain active mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients using some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client\\’s IP address, but on the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal? A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select pools. B. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved. C. For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT pools could vary dependent upon need. D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client\\’s address (or network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which statement is true regarding failover? A. Hardware failover is disabled by default. B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover. C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role. D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.) A. Monitors are performed only by the active system. B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system. C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system. D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system. E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. The pool is marked available. If a pool is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this? A. All of the pool member nodes are responding to the ICMP monitor as expected. B. Less than 50% of the pool member nodes responded to the ICMP echo request. C. All of the members of the pool have had their content updated recently and their responses no longer match the monitor. D. Over 25% of the pool members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the custom monitor. The other respond as expected. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 If a client\\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence? A. The connection request is not processed. B. The connection request is sent to a pology server. C. The connection request is loadbalanced to an available pool member. D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Henry Home Furnishings has built high-end furniture for nearly forty years. However, the new owner, Anton, has found some degree of disorganization after touring the company headquarters. His uncle Henry has always focused on production ? not data processing ? and Anton is concerned. In several storage rooms, he has found paper files, disks, and old computers that appear to contain the personal data of current and former employees and customers. Anton knows that a single break-in could irrevocably damage the company\\’s relationship with its loyal customers. He intends to set a goal of guaranteed zero loss of personal information. To this end, Anton originally planned to place restrictions on who was admitted to the physical premises of the company. However, Kenneth? his uncle\\’s vice president and longtime confidante? wants to hold off on Anton\\’s idea in favor of converting any paper records held at the company to electronic storage. Kenneth believes this process would only take one or two years. Anton likes this idea; he envisions a password-protected system that only he and Kenneth can access. Anton also plans to divest the company of most of its subsidiaries. Not only will this make his job easier, but it will simplify the management of the stored data. The heads of subsidiaries like the art gallery and kitchenware store down the street will be responsible for their own information management. Then, any unneeded subsidiary data still in Anton\\’s possession can be destroyed within the next few years. After learning of a recent security incident, Anton realizes that another crucial step will be notifying customers. Kenneth insists that the two lost hard drives in question are not cause for concern; all of the data was encrypted and not sensitive in nature. Anton does not want to take any chances, however. He intends on sending notice letters to all employees and customers to be safe. Anton must also check for compliance with all legislative, regulatory, and market requirements related to privacy protection. Kenneth oversaw the development of the company\\’s online presence about ten years ago, but Anton is not confident about his understanding of recent online marketing laws. Anton is assigning another trusted employee with a law background the task of the compliance assessment. After a thorough analysis, Anton knows the company should be safe for another five years, at which time he can order another check. Documentation of this analysis will show auditors’ due diligence. Anton has started down a long road toward improved management of the company, but he knows the effort is worth it. Anton wants his uncle\\’s legacy to continue for many years to come. In terms of compliance with regulatory and legislative changes, Anton has a misconception regarding? A. The timeline for monitoring B. The method of recordkeeping C. The use of internal employees D. The type of required qualifications Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements? A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties B. Look for overlaps in-laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations and inform stakeholders why they are applicable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as competitors was quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down. Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Mediaite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Mediaite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Mediaite to have absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost-effective.” You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps. You give a presentation to your CEO about privacy program maturity. What does it mean to have a “managed” privacy program, according to the AICPA/CICA Privacy Maturity Model? A. Procedures or processes exist, however they are not fully documented and do not cover all relevant aspects. B. Procedures and processes are fully documented and implemented and cover all relevant aspects. C. Reviews are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the controls in place. D. Regular review and feedback are used to ensure continuous improvement toward optimization of the given process. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://vvena.nl/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/aicpa_cica_privacy_maturity_model.pdf (page 2, 4th point under privacy maturity model)
QUESTION 4 Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which of the following situations would LEAST likely require a controller to notify a data subject? A. An encrypted USB key with sensitive personal data is stolen B. A direct marketing email is sent with recipients visible in the `cc\\’ field C. Personal data of a group of individuals are erroneously sent to the wrong mailing list D. A hacker publishes usernames, phone numbers, and purchase history online after a cyber-attack Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the notification, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. Informing the affected individuals that data from other individuals may have also been affected. B. Collecting more personally identifiable information than necessary to provide updates to the affected individuals. C. Using a postcard with the logo of the vendor who make the mistake instead of your company\\’s logo. D. Trusting a vendor to send out a notice when they already failed once by not encrypting the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development. You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear understanding of the need for change. Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place. Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective. You are left contemplating: What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention program? How can you build on your success? What are the next action steps? What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program being developed at Consolidated? A. Privacy by Design B. Privacy Step Assessment C. Information Security Planning D. Innovation Privacy Standards Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 What is the main purpose in notifying data subjects of a data breach? A. To avoid financial penalties and legal liability B. To enable regulators to understand trends and developments that may shape the law C. To ensure organizations have accountability for the sufficiency of their security measures D. To allow individuals to take any actions required to protect themselves from possible consequences Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How would a strong data life cycle management policy have helped prevent the breach? A. Information would have been ranked according to the importance and stored in separate locations B. The most sensitive information would have been immediately erased and destroyed C. The most important information would have been regularly assessed and tested for security D. Information would have been categorized and assigned a deadline for destruction Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which was delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How was Pacific Suites responsible for protecting the sensitive information of its offshoot, PHT? A. As the parent company, it should have transferred personnel to oversee the secure handling of PHT\\’s data. B. As the parent company, it should have performed an assessment of PHT\\’s infrastructure and confirmed complete separation of the two networks. C. As the parent company, it should have ensured its existing data access and storage procedures were integrated into PHT\\’s system. D. As the parent company, it should have replaced PHT\\’s electronic files with hard-copy documents stored securely on site. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which term describes a piece of personal data that alone may not identify an individual? A. Unbundled data B. A singularity C. Non-aggregated info point D. A single attribute Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. What key mistake set the company up to be vulnerable to a security breach? A. Collecting too much information and keeping it for too long B. Overlooking the need to organize and categorize data C. Failing to outsource training and data management to professionals D. Neglecting to make a backup copy of archived electronic files Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Your organization, the Chicago (U.S.)-based Society for Urban Greenspace, has used the same vendor to operate all aspects of an online store for several years. As a small nonprofit, the Society cannot afford the higher-priced options, but you have been relatively satisfied with this budget vendor, Shopping Cart Saver (SCS). Yes, there have been some issues. Twice, people who purchased items from the store have had their credit card information used fraudulently subsequent to transactions on your site, but in neither case did the investigation reveal with certainty that the Society\\’s store had been hacked. The thefts could have been employee-related. Just as disconcerting was an incident where the organization discovered that SCS had sold information it had collected from customers to third parties. However, as Jason Roland, your SCS account representative, points out, it took only a phone call from you to clarify expectations and the “misunderstanding” has not occurred again. As an information-technology program manager with the Society, the role of the privacy professional is only one of many you play. In all matters, however, you must consider the financial bottom line. While these problems with privacy protection have been significant, the additional revenues of sales of items such as shirts and coffee cups from the store have been significant. The Society\\’s operating budget is slim, and all sources of revenue are essential. Now a new challenge has arisen. Jason called to say that starting in two weeks, the customer data from the store would now be stored on a data cloud. “The good news,” he says, “is that we have found a low-cost provider in Finland, where the data would also be held. So, while there may be a small charge to pass through to you, it won\\’t be exorbitant, especially considering the advantages of a cloud.” Lately, you have been hearing about cloud computing and you know it\\’s fast becoming the new paradigm for various applications. However, you have heard mixed reviews about the potential impacts on privacy protection. You begin to research and discover that a number of the leading cloud service providers have signed a letter of intent to work together on shared conventions and technologies for privacy protection. You make a note to find out if Jason\\’s Finnish provider is signing on. After conducting research, you discover a primary data protection issue with cloud computing. Which of the following should be your biggest concern? A. An open programming model that results in easy access B. An unwillingness of cloud providers to provide security information C. A lack of vendors in the cloud computing market D. A reduced resilience of data structures that may lead to data loss. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which third-party management software can not integrate Huawei server now? A. HPOpenView B. HPOneView C. Nagios 4.x D. vCenter6.0 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Huawei E9000 server supports mixed insertion of blades. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which functions are iBMC\\’s specification of remote management ? (Multiple Choice) A. Virtual KVM B. SOL(Serial over LAN) C. Virtual Media D. redfish API Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Which types of storage can the G560 support? (Multiple Choice) A. 2.5″ NVMe SSD B. 3.5″ HDD C. 2.5H HDD/SSD D. M.2 SSD Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 Server node types of Huawei X6800 are: (Multiple Choice) A. GPU node B. Compute node C. Compute-storage balancing node D. Storage node Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6 Which Intel processor does Huawei X6800 XH622 V3 support? A. E5-2600v2 B. E5-2600v4 C. E5-4600 D. E3-1200v2 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which application scenario is the G530 V2 with 16 x P4 typically used for? A. AI Training B. AI Inference C. HPC D. All of them Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Huawei RH1288 V3 is a 1U rack server. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which servers does HUAWEI NVMe SSD support? (Multiple Choice) A. RH1288 V3 B. HP DL380 C. RH8100 D. Dell R630 Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 10 What is the maximum number of NVMe SSDs supported by Huawei 2288H V5? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 28 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Huawei E9000 uses the passive midplane that has no active components such as a resistor or IC. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which components does iBMC monitor? (Multiple Choice) A. PSU B. PCIe C. CPU D. Fan module Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13 The Huawei X6000 high-density server supports 24 NVMe SSDs in each chassis. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
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[2020.11] Popular Amazon ANS-C00 exam practice questions(1-5)
QUESTION 1 Your organization requires strict adherence to a change control process for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) and VPC environments. The organization uses AWS CloudFormation as the AWS service to control and implement changes. Which combination of three services provides an alert for changes made outside of AWS CloudFormation? (Choose three.) A. AWS Config B. AWS Simple Notification Service C. AWS CloudWatch metrics D. AWS Lambda E. AWS CloudFormation F. AWS Identify and Access Management Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2 A company\\’s IT Security team needs to ensure that all servers within an Amazon VPC can communicate with a list of five approved external IPs only. The team also wants to receive a notification every time any server tries to open a connection with a non-approved endpoint. What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements? A. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to ALL. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter on the VPC Flow Logs log group filtered by REJECT. Create an alarm for this metric to notify the Security team. B. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and the specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link the S3 object to the GuardDuty trusted IP list. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule on all GuardDuty findings to trigger an Amazon SNS notification to the Security team. C. Add allowed IPs to the network ACL for the application server subnets. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter set to REJECT. Set an Amazon CloudWatch Logs filter for the log group on every event. Create an alarm for this metric to notify the Security team. D. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account and specific region. Upload a list of allowed IPs to Amazon S3 and link the S3 object to the GuardDuty threat IP list. Integrate GuardDuty with a compatible SIEM to report on every alarm from GuardDuty. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A Network Engineer needs to create a public virtual interface on the company\\’s AWS Direct Connect connection and only import routes which originated from the same region as the Direct Connect location What action should accomplish this? A. Configure a prefix-list on the customer router containing the AWS IP address ranges for the specific region. B. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes with the 7224:8100 BGP community attribute. C. Configure a filter on the company\\’s router to only import routes without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3. D. Configure a filter in the console and only allow routes advertised by AWS without a BGP community attribute and a maximum path length of 3. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 An organization will be extending its existing on-premises infrastructure into the cloud. The design consists of a transit VPC that contains stateful firewalls that will be deployed in a highly available configuration across two Availability Zones for automatic failover. What MUST be configured for this design to work? (Choose two.) A. A different Autonomous System Number (ASN) for each firewall. B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routing C. Autonomous system (AS) path prepending D. Static routing E. Equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP) Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A corporate network routing table contains 624 individual RFC 1918 and public IP prefixes. You have two AWS Direct Connect connectors. You configure a private virtual interface on both connections to a virtual private gateway. The virtual private gateway is not currently attached to a VPC. Neither BGP session will maintain the Established state on the customer router. The AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interfaces as Down. What could you do to address the problem so that the AWS Management Console reports the private virtual interface as Available? A. Attach the virtual private gateway to a VPC and enable route propagation. B. Filter the public IP pre? xes on the corporate network from the private virtual interface. C. Change the BGP advertisements from the corporate network to only be a default route. D. Attach the second virtual interface to an alternative virtual private gateway. Correct Answer: D
[2020.11] Popular Amazon CLF-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A characteristic of edge locations is that they: A. host Amazon EC2 instances are closer to users. B. help lower latency and improve performance for users. C. cache frequently changing data without reaching the origin server. D. refresh data changes daily. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.edureka.co/community/600/what-is-an-edge-location-in-aws
QUESTION 2 The AWS Trusted Advisor checks include recommendations regarding which of the following? (Choose two.) A. Information on Amazon S3 bucket permissions B. AWS service outages C. Multi-factor authentication enabled on the AWS account root user D. Available software patches E. Number of users in the account Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/technology/trusted-advisor/best-practice-checklist/
QUESTION 3 A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could influence customer\\’s decision? (Choose two.) A. Reduced latency to users B. The application\\’s presentation in the local language C. Data sovereignty compliance D. Cooling costs in hotter climates E. Proximity to the customer\\’s office for on-site visits Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 Which Amazon RDS feature can be used to achieve high availability? A. Multiple Availability Zones B. Amazon Reserved Instances C. Provisioned IOPS storage D. Enhanced monitoring Correct Answer: A Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL, and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon\\’s failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database Mirroring (DBM). Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html
[2020.11] Popular Amazon DAS-C01 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A retail company\\’s data analytics team recently created multiple product sales analysis dashboards for the average selling price per product using Amazon QuickSight. The dashboards were created from .csv files uploaded to Amazon S3. The team is now planning to share the dashboards with the respective external product owners by creating individual users in Amazon QuickSight. For compliance and governance reasons, restricting access is a key requirement. The product owners should view only their respective product analysis in the dashboard reports. Which approach should the data analytics team take to allow product owners to view only their products in the dashboard? A. Separate the data by product and use S3 bucket policies for authorization. B. Separate the data by product and use IAM policies for authorization. C. Create a manifest file with row-level security. D. Create dataset rules with row-level security. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A large company has a central data lake to run analytics across different departments. Each department uses a separate AWS account and stores its data in an Amazon S3 bucket in that account. Each AWS account uses the AWS Glue Data Catalog as its data catalog. There are different data lake access requirements based on roles. Associate analysts should only have read access to their departmental data. Senior data analysts can have access to multiple departments including theirs, but for a subset of columns only. Which solution achieves these required access patterns to minimize costs and administrative tasks? A. Consolidate all AWS accounts into one account. Create different S3 buckets for each department and move all the data from every account to the central data lake account. Migrate the individual data catalogs into a central data catalog and apply fine-grained permissions to give to each user the required access to tables and databases in AWS Glue and Amazon S3. B. Keep the account structure and the individual AWS Glue catalogs on each account. Add a central data lake account and use AWS Glue to catalog data from various accounts. Configure cross-account access for AWS Glue crawlers to scan the data in each departmental S3 bucket to identify the schema and populate the catalog. Add the senior data analysts into the central account and apply highly detailed access controls in the Data Catalog and Amazon S3. C. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake. Use AWS Lake Formation to catalog the cross-account locations. On each individual S3 bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls to allow senior analysts to view specific tables and columns. D. Set up an individual AWS account for the central data lake and configure a central S3 bucket. Use an AWS Lake Formation blueprint to move the data from the various buckets into the central S3 bucket. On each individual bucket, modify the bucket policy to grant S3 permissions to the Lake Formation service-linked role. Use Lake Formation permissions to add fine-grained access controls for both associate and senior analysts to view specific tables and columns. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Once a month, a company receives a 100 MB .csv file compressed with gzip. The file contains 50,000 property listing records and is stored in Amazon S3 Glacier. The company needs its data analyst to query a subset of the data for a specific vendor. What is the most cost-effective solution? A. Load the data into Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon S3 Select. B. Query the data from Amazon S3 Glacier directly with Amazon Glacier Select. C. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Athena. D. Load the data to Amazon S3 and query it with Amazon Redshift Spectrum. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/athena/faqs/
QUESTION 4 A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution. Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements? A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to join data that is older than 13 months. B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with additional storage capacity. C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3. D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the same AWS Glue Data Catalog. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A financial company uses Apache Hive on Amazon EMR for ad-hoc queries. Users are complaining of sluggish performance. A data analyst notes the following: Approximately 90% of the queries are submitted 1 hour after the market opens. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) utilization never exceeds 10%. Which solution would help address the performance issues? A. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. B. Create instance fleet configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance fleet based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. C. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch CapacityRemainingGB metric. D. Create instance group configurations for core and task nodes. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale out the instance groups based on the Amazon CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Create an automatic scaling policy to scale in the instance groups based on the CloudWatch YARNMemoryAvailablePercentage metric. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 A company has two ArubaOS switches, Switch1 and Switch2. Switch1 will be the commander for a new Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric. Switch2 is a new switch that will be the standby member. The network administrator wants to configure the proper settings on the standby member interface before the standby member joins the fabric. What should the administrator do before the switches are joined in the VSF fabric? A. Configure the interface settings on Switch2. Then enable VSF on Switch2. B. Enable VSF on Switch2. Then configure the interface settings on Switch2. C. Provision member2 on Switch1. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch1. D. Provision member2 on Switch1 and member1 on Switch2. Then configure the member2 interface settings on Switch2. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which standard for wireless connectivity supports both 2.4GHz and 5GHz? A. 802.11a B. 802.11ac C. 802.11g D. 802.11n Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 What is one benefit that Aruba AirWave can provide to a customer with ArubaOS switches? A. It can audit switch firmware (software) and automate updates. B. It can enable the switches to provide mobility controller functions for connected Instant APs (IAPs). C. It can provide centralized authentication and authorization for users who log in to the switch CLI. D. It can program the switches to dynamically adjust QoS settings to prioritize Skype for Business traffic. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.google.co.in/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andved=0ahUKEwjKxOe v5JfUAhXGLI8KHVYWDvEQFggnMAAandurl=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.arubanetworks.com%2Fassets%2Fds% 2FDS_AW.pdfandusg=AFQjCNG2mDuwxsqBI8MHZoKPpteQmEJ71gandsig2=r3FEvyQVngpJKqQVz-kIOAandcad=rja
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, what is the problem? A. An issue causes the spanning tree to converge and re-converge again and again. B. Interface 25 on Switch-1 is incorrectly configured as an STP edge port and cause a loop to occur. C. Interface 25 on Switch-1 does not support the correct VLANs and prevents the interface from receiving the correct STP role. D. Switch-1 and another switch are configured with the same spanning-tree priority and cause the root election to occur again and again. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator installs a new aggregation and access layer in a campus network. All users in this area belong to the same VLAN. The administrator plugs the switches into the network with the factory default configurations. Which protocol must the administrator configure to prevent broadcast storms? A. MSTP B. LLDP C. OSPF D. LACP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A company needs a switch that supports 10GbE and 40GbE for its mid-sized campus. The company prefers stackable or fixed-port switches over modular switches. Which ArubaOS switch series best meet these needs? A. Aruba 2530 B. Aruba 2930F C. Aruba 3810 D. Aruba 5400R Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Exhibit 1.
Exhibit 2.
Assume that Switch-2 is correctly configured for OSPF. Which additional step must the administrator take to enable Switch-1 to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 to Switch-2? A. Set a router ID on Switch-1. B. Configure a route to advertise 192.168.2.0/24 on Switch-1. C. Add Switch-2\\’s router ID to Switch-1\\’s OSPF neighbor list. D. Enable OSPF on VLAN 2. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
Endpoint A sends broadcast ARP requests. Where are these requests received? A. at EndpointC B. at EndpointB C. at EndpointB, at EndpointC, and at EndpointD D. at EndpointB and at EndpointC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to manage Aruba 3810 Series switches deployed at the campus access layer. How does AirWave determine which configuration template to apply to these switches? A. based on their group B. based on their lowest level subfolder C. based on their top-level folder D. based on the global group associated with their group Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is a valid setup for a Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric? A. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member B. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and two 5406R zl2 switches as standby members C. one 5406R zl2 switch as commander and two 5412R zl2 switches as standby members D. one 5412R zl2 switch as commander and one 5412R zl2 switch as a standby member Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator views the configuration files on an ArubaOS switch and sees the output in the exhibit. The administrator enters this command: Switch# boot system flash primary config config2 After the switch boots, the administrator makes some configuration changes and saves the configuration with the write memory command. The administrator then enters this command: Switch# boot After the switch boots, the configuration changes just made are not present. How can the administrator restore the configuration with the changes? A. Use the boot set-default command to configure the switch to use the secondary software. Then reboot the switch. B. Reboot the switch and interrupt the boot process. Find the temporary file with the configuration changes and apply that file to the startup-config. C. Rename the config2 file to config1. Then reboot the switch. D. Use the startup-default command to configure the switch to use the config2 file with the primary software. Then reboot the switch. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What is a requirement for links to successfully participate in an aggregated link? A. that links have the spanning tree protocol disabled B. that links use the same speed and duplex mode C. that links use the same media type and are untagged D. that links are untagged and are associated with the same VLAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which ArubaOS switch feature treats multiple ports as one logical port? A. OSPF B. STP C. VSF D. link aggregation Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 You are creating a logical array on an HPE ProLiant server. The customer asks you to use drives with different capacities in a single array. What should you explain to this customer? A. Using drives with different capacities in a single array increases the chance of disk failure B. The extra capacity of the larger drives will not be utilized C. The process to create the array will fail, and the server will not boot D. The RAID level will be set at RAID 0 automatically Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which HPE tool can securely erase the current content of a server and help with the consistent and easy operating system installation? A. HPE System Insight Manager B. HPE Intelligent Management Center (IMC) C. HPE OneView D. HPE Intelligent Provisioning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You are provisioning a new virtual disk group on an MSA storage system. Which disk group parameters must you specify when creating the vdisk? (Choose three.) A. RAID level B. LUN number C. type D. cache size E. name F. volume size Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4 You are troubleshooting an HPE ProLiant rack-mount server. You need to collect event data from the server, even when it is not operational. Which tool should you use? A. Insight Online B. InfoSight C. OS Event Viewer D. Integrated Management Log Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A customer needs to know if the storage solution you proposed contains components that are compatible with existing products currently in the data center. Which HPE resource should you use to provide this information? A. Storage Size B. One Config Advanced (OCA) C. One Config Simple (OCS) D. Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge (SPOCK) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are installing HPE ProLiant servers into a rack that will be fully loaded. You also need to install four power distribution units (PDUs) in the rack. How should you install the PDUs to maximize power distribution and space efficiency? A. at the top of the rack with the cables running between the RETMA rails B. horizontally on extension bars mounted directly to the frame for improved clearance C. in the bottom bay of the rack with the outlets facing the front D. vertically, side by side on both sides of the rack with the outlets facing the center Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A customer has implemented an HPE ProLiant server with internal storage and needs to monitor the array health status. Which management application can the customer use to discover errors quickly and minimize the possible downtime? A. Insight Online B. Smart Storage Administrator C. Intelligent Management Center D. InfoSight Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A customer needs to improve the throughput performance of iSCSI traffic on their Layer 2 switch. Which feature should the customer implement at the switch level? A. Jumbo frames B. Oversubscription C. SMB Direct D. Remote Data Memory Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A customer needs to deploy an application on a newly-installed HPE ProLiant server, but they report that the server is not online. They call you for remote support. The IP address on the production network cannot be reached. You are evaluating the probable root causes of this issue. According to the troubleshooting methodology, what are the next two steps? (Select two) A. Remote console into the ToR switch to check the server\\’s port configuration. B. Log in to iLO to see if the server hardware and NIC are online and configured correctly. C. Use OneView to see f the server firmware is up-to-date D. Run insight Diagnostics on the Server E. Use Microsoft Remote Desktop or VNC to check the server\\’s NIC and IP address configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Why is RAID 6 the best option for a large RAID set for archive storage on large-capacity drives? A. to reduce risk during volume rebuild B. to increase write performance on the volume C. to maximize the capacity of the volume D. to reduce drive wear Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 You are onsite at a customer location to install a new network switch. The customer wants users to be able to manage the switch through the IP network. How should you connect the switch to the network? A. Configure multiple user IDs or roles for the console connection B. Configure the management IP address on the switch and enable Telnet or SSH access C. Use a dedicated console cable to create a dedicated management network for every user D. Connect the switch to the network by using the serial cable that ships with the switch Correct Answer: B
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