Month: January 2018

[Useful Dumps] Which is the Latest Questions for Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

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200-125 dumps

Real (1-30) questions and answers for Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? 200-125 dumps
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
200-125 dumps
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
200-125 dumps
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. 200-125 dumps What is the cause of the problem?
200-125 dumps
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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200-125 dumps

[Useful Dumps] 100% Pass Cisco CCDE 352-001 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Free Demo (Q1-Q20)

Where can you find the best Cisco CCDE 352-001 exam materials? Lead4pass offers best Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. Latest Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam” is the name of Cisco CCDE https://www.lead4pass.com/352-001.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The best useful Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free update, pass Cisco 352-001 exam test quickly and easily at first try.

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352-001 dumps
Best Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design.
What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are working on a network design plan for a company with approximately 2000 sites. The sites will be connected using the public Internet. You plan to use private IP addressing in the network design, which will be routed without NAT through an encrypted WAN network. Some sites will be connected to the Internet with dynamic public IP addresses, and these addresses may change occasionally.
Which VPN solution will support these design requirements?
A. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
B. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
C. GET VPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with DMVPN through the public Internet.
D. DMVPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with GET VPN through the public Internet.
E. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
F. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the- middle attacks.
When evaluating the network, which switch security option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC address mapping?
A. ARP rate limiting
B. DHCP snooping
C. Dynamic ARP Inspections
D. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are the lead IP/MPLS network designer of a service provider called XYZ. You are leading a design discussion regarding IPv6 implementation in the XYZ MPLS network, using MPLS 6PE/6VPE techniques. 352-001 dumps
Currently, XYZ provides IPv4 multicast services over an MPLS network by using MVPN, and would like to provide parallel IPv6 multicast services.
Which three multicast solutions should be enabled? (Choose three.)
A. native IPv6, only for multicast services
B. MPLS 6PE/6VPE, because it provides IPv6 multicast support by default
C. an overlay model using Layer 2 MPLS tunnels
D. PIM-DM to enable IPv6 multicast in conjunction with MPLS 6PE/6VPE
E. MVPN for IPv6 multicast service
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct about route reflector design?
A. Route reflectors should be placed to find the best exit point from the AS.
B. The EIGRP unequal cost, load-balancing characteristic facilitates route reflector placement.
C. Route reflectors should not be placed on the data path
D. Route reflectors help find the closest exits from the AS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network. Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Root Guard
E. DTP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You are a network designer who must fine tune the convergence of an IS-IS network. The failure detection mechanism has been addressed with reliable loss-of-signal at the interface level.
Which three other tools or techniques should be employed to achieve your requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use prefix prioritization techniques.
B. Use BFD on point-to-point links.
C. Speed up LSP generation.
D. Disable LDP-IGP synchronization.
E. Speed up the initial link state computation.
F. Eliminate the time that the overload bit is advertised to neighbors.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
352-001 dumps
Company ACME is adding a Cisco TelePresence system for real-time collaboration and wants to ensure the highest user experience. Drag and drop the necessary QoS mechanisms from the left to the right in any order. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
352-001 dumps
Correct Answer:
352-001 dumps
QUESTION 11
When a design calls for spanning VLANs across a campus network, what are two issues that need to be addressed in the design?
(Choose two.) 352-001 dumps
A. network convergence
B. network accessibility
C. fault isolation
D. application scalability
E. user experience
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What is a key role for the access layer in a hierarchical network design?
A. The access layer provides a security, QoS, and policy trust boundary.
B. The access layer provides an aggregation point for services and applications.
C. The access layer serves as a distribution point for services and applications.
D. The access layer can be used to aggregate remote users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company is designing a service provider network management solution in which customers are billed for 95th percentile network utilization. The service provider requires that an IETF standard be utilized to collect the data.
Which method should be used to collect the data?
A. IPFIX
B. NETFLOW
C. RMON
D. IPFLOW
E. NBAR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are designing a solution to eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization on a core network composed of CRS-1 devices.
Which option would eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization across the network?
A. Use Local Packet Transport Services (LPTS) to manage hardware SNMP flow rate.
B. Use the in-band control plane policy feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
C. Use the control plane policy feature and reduce SNMP flow rate.
D. Use control-plane management-plane in-band and reduce the SNMP flow rate.
E. Use the control-plane management-plane out-of-band feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You work for a large company that has just acquired another smaller company. You have been asked to lead a group of SAN experts from both companies to design the integration plan that will be used to interconnect the SANs and migrate the data from the newly acquired company to the main storage arrays.
The first thing that the team discovers is that the two SANs have the same domain IDs.
As the SAN team lead, what would you advise your team to do so that you can interconnect the two SANs while minimizing disruption?
A. Use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer between the two SANs.
B. Change the domain IDs on both SANs so that they are both unique and then connect ISLs between the SANs.
C. Use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs.
D. The two SANs cannot be merged without disruption.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge router. 352-001 dumps Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will have the most negative impact on the delay of the packet?
A. encryption
B. stateful firewall
C. MPLS encapsulation
D. GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network.
Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Port Security
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
There is an MPLS-enabled link constantly flapping on an MPLS VPN network.
Given that the network runs OSPF as the IGP protocol, which design mechanism will stabilize the network and avoid constant reconvergences?
A. BFD
B. IP Event Dampening
C. OSPF fast hellos
D. partial SPF
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A Service Provider network designer is considering the use of the G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection mechanism in order to provide resiliency in the network.
Which three concepts will be supported with the implementation G.8032? (Choose three.)
A. Ring Protection Link (RPL)
B. Ring Automatic Protection Switching (R-APS)
C. Multi-Router Automatic Protection Switching (MR-APS)
D. Automatic Protection Switching (APS) Channel
Correct Answer: ABD

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[Useful Dumps] Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Update (Q1-Q15)

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640-692 dumps
QUESTION 1
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco IOS or configuration file, from one device to another.
Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
640-692 dumps
Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a DTE device? 640-692 dumps
A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

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[Useful Dumps] Useful Latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Free Shared (Q1-Q15)

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100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.

QUESTION 2
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+

QUESTION 3
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic 100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt
B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Use the andquot;show interface s0/0andquot; to see the bandwidth set at 16 Kbit/sec. The show interface s0/0 command results will look something like this and the bandwidth will be represented by this.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update.

QUESTION 6
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the
destination port.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 11
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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[Useful Dumps] Microsoft MCP, Microsoft Specialist 70-532 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube (Q1-Q15)

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70-532 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are maintaining an application that uses the Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) to serve terabytes of content that is stored in page blobs.
Your bill for CDN services is higher than you expect.
You need to monitor the application to find issues that increase costs.
Which two operations should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Time-To-Live (TTL) of the blobs.
B. The country of origin for the client computer and the CDN region.
C. The number of requests that result in an HTTP status code over 400.
D. The allocated size of page blobs.
E. The expiration date of the blobs.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time. 70-532 dumps
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN). Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are developing a web application that integrates with Azure Active Directory (AD). The application uses the OAuth 2.0 protocol to authorize secure connections to a web service that is at https://service.adatum.com.
The application must request an access token to invoke the web service methods.
You need to submit an HTTP request to the Azure AD endpoint.
How should you complete the request? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-532 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps
QUESTION 6
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.
Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs).
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
– Understand which storage areas perform operations that incur a fee.
– Understand which requests are denied because of insufficient permissions.
– Validate that the performance of the storage account meets the service level agreement (SLA) for the Azure Storage service.
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. 70-532 dumps
You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application.
You need to create five instances of the web role.
How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps
QUESTION 9
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines. 70-532 dumps
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You store data in an Azure blob. Data accumulates at a rate of 0.10 GB per day.
You must use storage analytics data to verify that the service level agreement (SLA) has been met and to analyze the performance of VHDs, including the pattern of usage.
Analytics data must be deleted when it is older than 100 days or when the total amount of data exceeds 10 GB.
You need to configure storage analytics and access the storage analytics data.
Which two approaches will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Disable the data retention policy.
B. Access analytics data by using the Service Management REST APL
C. Access analytics data by using the APIs used to read blob and table data.
D. Configure a data retention policy of 100 days.
Correct Answer: CD

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