[Updated Oct 2022] New Avaya 78950X dumps With PDF and VCE from Lead4Pass

New Avaya 78950X dumps

geekcert has newly released the latest Avaya 78950X exam dumps! contains 65 exam questions and answers, candidates can use the two study tools provided by geekcert to effectively study the latest exam materials: 78950X dumps VCE and 78950X dumps PDF.

It can help candidates improve their study efficiency and pass the exam successfully! Now get the latest 78950X dumps in VCE and PDF from geekcert — https://www.geekcert.com/78950x.html (65 Q&A dumps)

BTW, Avaya 78950X exam candidates can get some free exam questions and answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lqyGgfE3GVR2Kq541NhaSumVP7x-TU8-/

What’s more, the Avaya 78950X Dumps exam questions and answers can also be read online:

NEW QUESTION 1:

When working with application flows, which statement about errors In syntax and logic in Orchestration Designer is true?

A. They appear in the problems view in Orchestration Designer.
B. The errors are signaled by Orchestration Designer at the instant they occur,
C. The errors are automatically corrected.
D. They appear in the error log view.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which three applications are included with the IP Office admin suite Installation? (Choose three.)

A. Avaya Grep
B. System Status
C. IP Office Platform Manager
D. IP Office Manager
E. System Monitor

Correct Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 3:

Which statement about the function of the Access Class In Access and Partition Management Is true?

A. The Access Class will prevent a user from modifying skillset properties.
B. An Access Class will limit the Launchpad links a user may access.
C. The Access Class will be used to limit the user to report on specific contact center agents.
D. Access Classes will be used to limit a user to specific report groups.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4:

To reduce implementation time, the partner has prepared the customer/partner-supplied server in advance and plans to complete the configuration at the customer\’s site. The partner has pre-installed Windows and the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) software, but without running the ignition

Which deployment type does this represent?

A. Software Appliance option
B. Hardware Appliance option
C. DVD option
D. Trunkey option

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

The information used to populate Real Time Displays may be transmitted by using which two modes?
(Choose two.)

A. Broadcast
B. Unicast
C. Anycast
D. Multicast

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

A user\’s access to prompt management controls through the Launchpad is controlled through which three controls? (Choose three.)

A. Partitions
B. Element Manager login
C. Access class
D. Basic Launchpad rights
E. Windows group security

Correct Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 7:

Which statement about the Avaya SIP Sleuth is true?

A. It is a pre-installed application found under Contact Center Common Utilities.
B. It is a separate downloadable application that runs on a local workstation PC.
C. It is a pre-installed application but must be activated in the registry of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS).
D. It must be downloaded and run from the AMS element manager.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

The SIP Domain for the IP Office is set to ukaccslpoll.lab.trn.com. When administering the IP Office to work with Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS), which two steps are required? (Choose two.)

A. Verify SIP trunks are available for the ACCS integration.
B. Verify that SIP Registrar Enable is configured in the IP Office VoIP settings.
C. Administer the ACCS system SIP Domain to match the IP Office.
D. Change the IP Office SIP Domain to match the ACCS system.

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 9:

A call variable is useful because of which two characteristics? (Choose two.)

A. Only call variables of type Integer can be used as wild variables.
B. Their values can be changed during a call session to serve as a collector for caller-entered information.
C. They can be assigned a range of values when they are created in the variable editor.
D. They can be changed from a call variable to a global variable during a call session.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 10:

Contact Center calls arriving at the IP Office are not reaching the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) system.

What is causing this problem?

A. No agents are logged into any ACCS skillsets.
B. The control directory number is not acquired.
C. The master script is not activated.

D. The IP Office Short Code is not configured under the IP Office Server node.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

How many Multimedia users are fully configured within the sample users on Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 25
D. 100

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which tool or web page does the administrator use to manually synchronize IP Office and Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) user data?

A. ACCS, the Configuration component
B. ACCS, Contact Center Manager component
C. IP Office Web Manager
D. IP Office System Status

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13:

What are three of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) data sets that must be backed up to protect the ACCS system? (Choose three.)

A. WebLM
B. ADMIN
C. CCMA
D. REGISTRY
E. CCT

Correct Answer: ACE


Download the geekcert 78950X Dumps with PDF and VCE to ensure you 100% successfully pass the Avaya Contact Center Select Implementation and Maintenance Exam — https://www.geekcert.com/78950x.html (65 Q&A dumps)

Also, you can download the Avaya 78950X exam questions and answers above: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lqyGgfE3GVR2Kq541NhaSumVP7x-TU8-/

The latest version of Lead4Pass des-4122 exam dumps is shared online

Download the latest version of the geekcert des-4122 exam dumps now: https://www.geekcert.com/des-4122.html to help you prepare and pass the des-4122 DCS-IE exam as quickly as possible.

geekcert des-4122 exam dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine to prepare for the des-4122 DCS-IE exam in advance, covering a total of 60 exam questions and answers, covering the complete actual exam questions.

[Free Q1-Q13] Download the latest updated EMC des-4122 dumps PDF:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1B3H71c_SnPOaWJgQXYAp67hQ8OFulaNI/

Latest Updated EMC des-4122 Dumps Exam Questions and answers:

Number of exam questionsUpdate timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
13Sep 19, 2022Specialist – Implementation Engineer PowerEdge Version 2.0 (DES-4122)geekcertMay 22, 2022
QUESTION 1:

CORRECT TEXT

For a temporary migration task the CPU core count on the Dell EMC PowerEdge R640 server needs to be reduced to 8 because the installed application will not work due to license restrictions. Use the simulator to apply the change so the application can be installed.

When you have finished using the simulator, click Next.

des-4122 questions 1

A. No answer
B. Place Holder
C. Place Holder
D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A technician needs to change the iDRAC password on a Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G server in a lights-out datacenter.

The be rebooted because it is in production. The iDRAC is configured with the default credentials How could the technician change the iDRAC password?

A. SupportAssist Enterprise
B. iDRAC Web GUI
C. OpenManage Server Administrator
D. Virtual Console; press F2 after rebooting system

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

DRAG DROP

Match each status LED indicator on the Dell EMC 14G PowerEdge server with its corresponding condition.
Select and Place:

des-4122 questions 3

Correct Answer:

des-4122 answer 3

QUESTION 4:

What is a key feature introduced in OpenManage Mobile v2.0?

A. Access servers remotely through OME
B. Access SupportAssist reports
C. Access a Virtual Console (VNC over SSH) securely
D. Access iDRAC remotely

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

An engineer needs to install an additional PSU on an existing, single PSU Dell EMC PowerEdge R740. They complete the initial installation and cabling procedures. They connect an AC cable and the power distribution unit produces normal AC output. The engineer checks power management and sees that the new PSU is in a Failed state.

What task should be completed to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Confirm the System Input Power CAP is not set to Low
B. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+1
C. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+0
D. Verify the new PSU is the same type and wattage rating

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

A technician installs eight servers into a fully operational rack with top of rack switch Each server has a quad 1Gb NIC and redundant power supplies The company uses iDRAC in shared LOM mode with LOM1 as the selected NIC

What should the technician do to verify iDRAC connectivity on each server?

A. iDRAC Datacenter license is installed.
B. Ethernet port LOM1 is cabled and the link light is green.
C. iDRAC dedicated NIC port is cabled and the link light is green
D. iDRAC Enterprise license is installed

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

What must be done before upgrading OMSA from the 32-bit to the 64-bit version?

A. Save the license file
B. Disable UAC
C. Back up the configuration
D. Uninstall the earlier version

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

How can a technician know whether IDRAC9 System Lockdown mode is enabled?

A. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

B. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

C. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots

D. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Does an engineer want to fully leverage Microsoft Windows Server 2016 for TPM-based guarded host deployment of a 14G server Which BIOS settings need to be used for installing the Windows server?

des-4122 questions 9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

Starting from which Dell EMC PowerEdge server hardware generation is the Micro SD card in the IDSDM/vFlash module supported?

A. 11G
B. 12G
C. 13G
D. 14G

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

What are key values related to systems management when deploying OpenManage Enterprise wit Dell EMC PowerEdge servers?

A. Automate Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Simple and effective

B. Simplify Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Fee-based license

C. Simplify Fee-based license Agent-free Management Secure

D. Simplify Unify Automate Secure

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

What is a characteristic of out-of-band management?

A. Dedicated device
B. Agent-based
C. Less secure
D. Dependent upon OS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is the Open Compute Project (OCP) card used for in a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. Flexibility to choose interconnects
B. Fixed networking card
C. Consume a PCIe slot
D. Provide a hot-swap component

Correct Answer: B

[Free Q1-Q13] Download the latest updated Cisco des-4122 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1B3H71c_SnPOaWJgQXYAp67hQ8OFulaNI/

geekcert des-4122 exam dumps have been updated to the latest version, proven, real and effective. And shared the above EMC des-4122 Dumps Exam Questions, you can use these questions to help you practice and improve yourself.

You are welcome to download the 60-question des-4122 exam questions and answers: https://www.geekcert.com/des-4122.html, to help you pass the des-4122 DCS-IE exam with 100% success.

Juniper JN0-348 dumps: serves all JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam candidates

The newly updated Juniper JN0-348 dumps contains 92 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the JN0-348 dumps PDF and JN0-348 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

You are welcome to download the latest Juniper JN0-348 dumps: https://www.geekcert.com/jn0-348.html, geekcert JN0-348 dumps serve all candidates taking the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam and guarantee you 100% Successfully passed the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

Download the Juniper JN0-348 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1QwtzYtZLRnolPQj748dbsLy28lLkUFQo/

Share the latest Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

Which statement is correct about IS-IS link state PDUs?

A. They are used to maintain link-state database synchronization.

B. They are used to establish adjacencies.

C. They are used to build the link-state database.

D. They are used to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

Which Junos feature allows you to combine multiple interfaces into a single bundle?

A. VRRP

B. Virtual Chassis

C. LAG

D. NSB

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

Which protocol prevents loops and calculates the best path through a switched network that contains redundant paths?

A. VRRP

B. STP

C. DHCP

D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

What are two advantages of a point-to-point OSPF adjacency? (Choose two.)

A. Only a DR is elected.

B. No type 1 LSAs are generated.

C. No type 2 LSAs are generated.

D. There is quicker neighbor establishment.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 5:

Which two characteristics are true for EBGP peerings? (Choose two.)

A. EBGP peers must be directly connected.

B. EBGP connects peer devices in the same autonomous system.

C. EBGP connects peer devices in two different autonomous systems.

D. EBGP peers can be connected over a multihop connection.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 6:

Which two port security features use the DHCP snooping database for additional port security? (Choose two.)

A. dynamic ARP inspection

B. MACsec

C. IP Source Guard

D. MAC learning

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 7:

Which two statements are correct regarding the root bridge election process when using STP? (Choose two.)

A. A lower system MAC address is preferred.

B. A higher bridge priority is preferred.

C. A lower bridge priority is preferred.

D. A higher system MAC address is preferred.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 8:

What are two characteristics of OSPF ABRs? (Choose two.)

A. ABRs transmit routing information between the backbone and other areas.

B. ABRs cannot be part of the backbone and another area at the same time.

C. ABRs inject routing information from outside the OSPF domain.

D. ABRs link two OSPF areas.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 9:

Which statement is correct about trunk ports?

A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic.

B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic.

C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned.

D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address using DHCP.

Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device.

B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database.

C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI.

D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.)

A. a stable network topology

B. a neighbor configured with BFD

C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart

D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

You configured a GRE tunnel that traverses a path using default MTU settings. You want to ensure that packets are not dropped of fragmented.

In this scenario, what is the maximum packet size that would traverse the GRE tunnel?

A. 1500

B. 1400

C. 1524

D. 1476

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

When configuring firewall filters, which function does the interface-specific parameter enable on an EX Series switch?

A. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-specific counters.

B. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-specific counters.

C. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure VLAN-based filters.

D. The interface-specific parameter is required to configure port-based firewall filters.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.)

A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination.

B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

C. BGP attributes are always optional.

D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 15:

Which static route next-hop value indicates that the packet will be silently dropped?

A. resolve

B. discard

C. reject

D. next-table

Correct Answer: B

Download the Juniper JN0-348 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1QwtzYtZLRnolPQj748dbsLy28lLkUFQo/

The above is only a part of Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions and answers, you can use the above exam questions and answers to improve yourself, not only that, we welcome you to download the latest
Juniper JN0-348 dumps exam questions: https://www.geekcert.com/jn0-348.html (Total Questions: 92 Q&A), help you truly pass the JN0-348 JNCIS-ENT exam.

More IT certification blogs: [Amazon]awsexamdumps.com, [Oracle]oraclefreedumps.com, [Cisco]ciscofreedumps.com, [Microsoft]examdumpsbase.com, [Citrix]citrixexamdumps.com
[CompTIA]comptiafreedumps.com, [Juniper]vmwarefreedumps.com, [IBM]ibmexamdumps.com, [HP]hpexamdumps.com, [NetApp]NetAppexamdumps.com, [Juniper]juniperexamdumps.com
[Fortinet]fortinetexamdumps.com

What is the best solution for the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam?

geekcert 201 Dumps is the best solution to pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam.

The F5 201 Dumps with 91 up-to-date exam questions and answers have been released from geekcert.com, with PDF files and a VCE mock exam engine, as well as 365 days of free updates to help you truly pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration exam.

Take advantage of the F5 201 – TMOS Administration exam solution, using F5 201 dumps https://www.geekcert.com/201.html, to help you win.

Experience some F5 201 Dumps exam questions online:

Tips: The best experience is the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?

A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.

C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.

D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

QUESTION 2:

Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?

A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.

B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP.

C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.

D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP.

QUESTION 3:

Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)

A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.

B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.

C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.

D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.

E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

QUESTION 4:

A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address

when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

A. 200.200.1.1

B. 150.150.10.11

C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system

D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system

QUESTION 5:

Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose three.)

A. CLIENT_DATA

B. SERVER_DATA

C. HTTP_REQUEST

D. HTTP_RESPONSE

E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED

F. SERVER_SELECTED

G. SERVER_CONNECTED

QUESTION 6:

Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server\’s destination port were not 443?

A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server\’s port was not port 443.

B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.

C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended.

D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port
443.

QUESTION 7:

Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)

A. The bigtop command displays the status.

B. Only the active system\’s configuration screens are active.

C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt.

D. The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.

QUESTION 8:

The incoming client IP address is 205.12.45.52. The last five connections have been sent to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the virtual server and pool definitions and the statistics shown in the graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80

B. 10.10.20.2:80

C. 10.10.20.3:80

D. 10.10.20.4:80

E. 10.10.20.5:80

QUESTION 9:

Which statement is true regarding failover?

A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.

B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.

C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.

D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.

QUESTION 10:

Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use.

A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.

B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.

C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.

D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes.

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor

B. inherit the node\’s monitor

C. configure a default monitor

D. assign a monitor to the specific member

E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

QUESTION 12:

How is MAC masquerading configured?

A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.

B. Specify the desired MAC address for each selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems.

D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.

QUESTION 13:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:ACCECACECACABCADEAC

[Google Drive] Download the F5 201 Dumps exam questions and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1cj81qXpy3vJbuAugA3d_VWV0tNO5JqqA/

I can confidently tell all candidates: geekcert 201 Dumps exam questions can help you improve your study efficiency, save time and exam cost, and ultimately help you successfully pass the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam.

Based on the above, so the best solution for the F5 201 – TMOS Administration Exam is to practice F5 201 Dumps https://www.geekcert.com/201.html (91 Q&A).

Use the latest 010-151 dumps to help you pass the Cisco DCTECH certification exam

Using 010-151 dumps can help you successfully pass the Cisco DCTECH certification exam on your first attempt.

Because 010-151 dumps have many successful advantages:

  1. Lightweight Learning Tool (PDF+VCE)
  2. More free usage time (365 days Free Update)
  3. Covers all Cisco DCTECH practical exam questions and answers, with explanations of difficult problems
  4. Have a professional Cisco technical team service

So why not use 010-151 dumps to help you easily and successfully pass the exam? And geekcert, as the provider of 010-151 dumps, has many years of industry reputation, is the industry leader, and is trustworthy, what else do you have to worry about?

Therefore, it is strongly recommended that you use the 010-151 dumps exam material https://www.geekcert.com/010-151.html, which is up to date throughout the year, to prepare you for a career leap.

More detailed 010-151 DCTECH certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Certification: CCT Data Center
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $125 USD
Number of Questions: 65-75
010-151 dumps: https://www.geekcert.com/010-151.html (Total Questions: 136 Q&A)

Cisco 010-151 exam questions online practice test:

Question 1:

Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. iSCSI

D. FCoE

Question 2:

Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?

A. recovery

B. redundancy

C. resiliency

D. security

E. storage

Question 3:

The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?

A. 10 Mb/s

B. 100 Mb/s

C. 1000 Mb/s

D. 10000 Mb/s

Question 4:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Question 5:

What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?

A. 100 Mb/s

B. 1 Gb/s

C. 10 Gb/s

D. 100 Gb/s

Question 6:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Question 7:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Question 8:

What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A. Amber

B. Red

C. Blinking amber

D. Blinking red

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?

A. HDD 1

B. TFP Module

C. SuperCap Module

D. CPU 2

E. CMOS Battery

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

A. A is the power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is the system status LED; D is the network link activity LED.

B. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

C. A is the system status LED; B is the network link activity LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

D. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the identification button and LED; D is the power button and power status LED.

Question 11:

Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors

C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Question 12:

Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548P

B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP

C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

D. Cisco Nexus 5596T

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?

A. MDS 9509

B. MDS 9513

C. MDS 9710

D. MDS 9506

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?

A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server

B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server

C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server

D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Question 15:

Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?

A. first-generation supervisor module

B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)

C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)

D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:CBBBDAECCDACDCCC

CCT Data Center certification exam The only core exam (010-151 DCTECH) that focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco Unified Computing Systems and servers.
Select geekcert 010-151 dumps https://www.geekcert.com/010-151.html, Helping you 100% pass the Cisco 010-151 DCTECH certification exam.

4A0-N01 Dumps updated | Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials

4A0-N01 Dumps have been updated to provide Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam Core Questions and Answers, the truly valid Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials.

Now, visit the geekcert 4A0-N01 Dumps page: https://www.geekcert.com/4a0-n01.html to get the really effective Nuage Networks VCS Fundamentals Exam Materials to help you successfully pass the exam on your first attempt, The page provides a variety of learning methods (PDF, VCE, PDF+VCE), which are very friendly and help you to learn easily and successfully face the real exam room.

4A0-N01 Exam Details:

Vendor: Nokia

Exam Code: 4A0-N01

Exam Name: Nuage Networks Virtualized Cloud Services (VCS) Fundamentals Exam

Certification: Nuage Networks Professional – Software-Defined Datacenter (NNP SD-DC)

Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A

Exam Duration: 90 Minutes

Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45-minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.

Number of Questions: 40

Language: English

Price: $125 US

4A0-N01 Free dumps online reading:

QUESTION 1:

To auto-instantiate services on a 7750 DCI, which protocol needs to be enabled between the 7750 SR and VSD?

A. SNMP
B. Openflow
C. XMPP
D. BGP EVPN

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What statement regarding VSD user management is TRUE?

A. We can create CMS user groups for each enterprise.
B. Each enterprise user belongs to only one user group.
C. Open LDAP and Active Directory can be integrated into VSD.
D. LDAP integration is configured at the VSD global level, and it is not a configurable enterprise.

Correct Answer: B

Easy as adding them to a specific user group.

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/target/using/administer/manage-users/enterprise/ property-channel.html

QUESTION 3:

What statement about stateful ACL entries is FALSE?

A. They can track both TCP and UDP flows.
B. They can be created in either ingress or egress directions.
C. A packet in the direction of the stateful ACL rules will automatically create a “related” rule in the reverse direction.
D. The automatically created rules will not go away until the ACL is manually deactivated and reactivated.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

What statement about Open vSwitch is TRUE?

A. It is a standard virtual switch that can run on any operating system.
B. It can only be configured using Openflow by an SDN controller.
C. It provides tunneling mechanisms, for example, VXLAN.
D. It supports most of the open protocols, for example, OSPF, and BGP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

Which of the following is NOT a goal of NFV?

A. Reduce equipment cost
B. Faster time-to-market for new services
C. Efficiency through automation
D. Increase network bandwidth

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

What statement regarding the VRS-G is FALSE?

A. The VRS-G is the software VXLAN/VLAN gateway of the Nuage VCS solution.
B. The VRS-G is deployed on a hypervisor, following the same deployment requirements as a regular VRS.
C. Virtual machines created on the hypervisor are attached to access ports on VRS-G.
D. The network ports on VRS-G point towards the Nuage overlay VXLAN network.

Correct Answer: B

This permits the bridging of the hypervisor-focused overlay networking and physical devices in the data center.

Reference: https://jujucharms.com/nuage-vrsg/

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the diagram.

What is the correct sequence of events for a VM to be instantiated, and for its required network connectivity to be created with the Nuage VCS solution?

a. Network domain and policy templates are defined on VSD.
b. VSC queries VSD on network service and policies.
c. VSD provides VSC with network service and policies.
d. VRS agent informs VSC of the new VM placement.
e. VSC deploys policy to applicable VRS agents.
f. VM instantiated on the hypervisor.

A. a->b->c->d->e->f
B. a->b->c->f->d->-e
C. a->f->d->b->c->-e
D. f->d->b->a>c->-e

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following is a solution to create virtual machines in which the server runs the hypervisor as a specialized operating system and, as a consequence, there is no need for a conventional operating system?

A. Kernel
B. Container
C. Native hypervisor
D. Hosted hypervisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

What is the difference between host vPort and bridge vPort?

A. A host vPort is provisioned on VRS-G, while a bridge vPort is provisioned on VSG.
B. A host vPort is provisioned for VLAN traffic, while a bridge vPort is for VxLAN traffic.
C. A host vPort only supports one VLAN, while a bridge vPort can be configured with multiple VLANs.
D. A host vPort requires static MAC address configuration, while a bridge vPort learns MAC addresses dynamically.

Correct Answer: A

Bridge vPort hosted in Nuage VSG/VSA Gateways Software, VRS and VRS-G hosted vPort

Reference: https://matscloud.blogspot.com/2017/06/nuage-networks-vsp-deep-dive.html

QUESTION 10:

What statement is TRUE regarding multiple virtual IP addresses assigned to a single vPort?

A. The virtual IP addresses can be in a different subnet than the VM interface IP address.
B. All virtual IP addresses of a vPort must be in the same subnet.
C. One of the virtual IP addresses can be the same as the VM interface IP address.
D. Every virtual IP address must be associated with a virtual MAC, which differs from the VM interface MAC address.

Correct Answer: A

If you have only one public IP address available, and you want to host multiple servers, use aVIP.

QUESTION 11:

What is NOT a component of VSD?

A. Neutron
B. Statistics Engine
C. Policy Management Engine
D. RESTful API

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.nuagenetworks.net/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/
PR1507013354EN_NN_RedH_Open_Hybrid_Clouds_PartnerSolutionBrief.pdf

QUESTION 12:

What statement about statistics rules on Nuage VCS is FALSE?

A. Users can define statistics rules for domain/zones/subnets/vPorts. The rule applied to the most granular object is the one used.

B. Statistics are collected in an Elasticsearch statistics engine and are aggregated over hours, days, and months.

C. Statistics are pushed from VRS up to VSC, which in turn sends them to the VSD stats engine.

D. When a TCA threshlod is exceeded, an event is displayed in the UI and a message is sent on the JMS bus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

What is NOT a function of the VSC?

A. CMS integration
B. SDN controller
C. BGP federation
D. XMPP communication with VSD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/networking/sdn/definitions/nuage-networks-vsc/

……

4A0-N01 Free dumps online download:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qcxAr8dtqpCz6NIL3T4XRTRFl_0MJgym/

Get 64 4A0-N01 exam questions and answers: Click Here

F5 F50-531 Dumps | Preparing for the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x Exam

Are you preparing for the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x exam? F50-531 Dumps has developed exam questions and answers based on the exam core question types.

On the geekcert F50-531 dumps page https://www.geekcert.com/f50-531.html, you can find a variety of download buttons we provide for you, using both PDF and VCE tools provided by geekcert
Study the BIG-IP v10.x LTM Essentials V10.x exam core questions we have prepared for you to help you pass the exam successfully the first time.

Next, read F5 F50-531 free dumps to help you choose more…

QUESTION 1:

If a client\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?

A. The connection request is not processed.
B. The connection request is sent to a topology server.
C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member.
D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members.
whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?

A. That support is never available.
B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs.
C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN.
D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. CLI access to the serial console port
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 4:

A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection.
C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection.
D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?

A. the system\’s dossier
B. the system\’s hostname
C. the system\’s base license
D. the system\’s purchase order number

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D, and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
F. It cannot be determined with the information given.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)

A. SNAT\’s are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Profile definition.
C. SNAT\’s can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D. SNAT\’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8:

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing config sync all?

A. The process should always be run from the standby system.

B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.

C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?

A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system.

B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.

C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?

A. host names
B. system clocks
C. profile definitions
D. VLAN fail-safe settings
E. MAC masquerade addresses

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)

A. inherit the pool\’s monitor
B. inherit the node\’s monitor
C. configure a default monitor
D. assign a monitor to the specific member
E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member, or node.
B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test.
C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s members passed the test.
D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool\’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13:

When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?

A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception.
D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server.

Correct Answer: B

……

Download F5 F50-531 free dumps online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Z-84oO-8-KvG3KQ6LvvLPh_raIcUqfIC/view?usp=sharing

View 99 F5 F50-531 Exam Questions: learn more