geekcert F5 101 dumps update! Corrected and re-edited! Currently has 699 exam questions and answers to ensure you pass the F5 101 exam.
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New F5 101 dumps exam practice questions shared online:
Which of the following is a valid IP address and prefix length?
A. 192. 168.:0 177/25
B. 192 168:0. 129/25
C. 192.168:0 128/25
D. 192 168 :0 255/25
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
When DNS_REV is used as the probe protocol by the GTM System, which information is expected in the response from the probe?
A. a reverse name lookup of the GTM System
B. the list of root servers known by the local DNS
C. the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information
D. the revision number of BIND running on the requesting DNS server
Correct Answer: C
Question 3:
Which command should a BIG-IP Administrator use to resolve the domain www. F5.com?
A. grep
B. ping
C. dig
D. find
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Which level of parameter assumes the highest precedence in BIG-IP ASM System processing logic?
A. Flow
B. Object
C. Global
D. URL
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
A BIG-IP Administrator needs to make sure that requests from a single user are directed to the server that was initially selected (unless that server is marked down). What should the administrator configure?
A. caching profile
B. TCP profile
C. persistence profile
D. security policy
Correct Answer: C
Question 6:
Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device? (Choose three.)
A. Web Accelerator
B. APM
C. ARX
D. GTM
E. Firepass
F. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: ABD
These software modules that can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device are AAM, APM, and GTM.
Question 7:
Which of the following is a language used for content provided by a web server to a web client?
A. FTP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. HTML
Correct Answer: D
Question 8:
Which protocol data unit (PDU) is associated with the OSI model\’s Physical layer?
A. Frame
B. Datagram
C. Segment
D. Bit
Correct Answer: D
https//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protocol data unit
Question 9:
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose 3)
A. CLIENT_DATA
B. SERVER_DATA
C. HTTP_REQUEST
D. HTTP_RESPONSE
E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED
F. SERVER_SELECTED
G. SERVER_CONNECTED
Correct Answer: ACE
Question 10:
Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed at the network layer.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which type of certificate is pre-installed in a web browser\’s trusted store?
A. Root Certificate
B. Server Certificate
C. Client Certificate
D. intermediate Certificate
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
A BIG IP Administrator wants to add a new VLAN (VLAN 40) to an LACP trunk (named LACP01) connected to the BIG-IP device Mufti VLANS exist on LACPO1.
Which TMSH command should the BIG IP Administrator issue to add the new VLAN to the existing LACP trunk?
A. create net vlan VLAN40 (interfaces add (LACP01 {lagged)) tag 40}
B. create net vlan VLAN40 {interfaces replace-all-with {LACP01{tagged}} tag 40}
C. create net vlan VLAN40 interfaces replace all with {LACP01 {untagged)} tag 40}
D. create net vlan VLAN40 {interfaces add {LACP01 {untagged}} tag 40}
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP UCS backup file? (Choose three.)
A. the BIG-IP administrative addresses
B. the BIG-IP license
C. the BIG-IP log files
D. the BIG-IP default traps
E. the BIG-IP host name
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 14:
Which three of the following statements describe a data center object?
A. It attempts to match a DNS request with a configured wide IP.
B. It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C. It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.
D. It retains statistics for each data center.
E. It is a logical representation of a physical location.
F. It specifies how users access the Internet.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 15:
A new VLAN segment has been added to the network. Only the existing connected interface may be used. What should the BIG-IP Administrator do to allow traffic to both the existing and the new VLAN?
A. configure VLAN with Link Aggregation Control Protocols (LACP)
B. configure a tagged VLAN
C. configure an untagged VLAN
D. configure VLAN to use interface with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
Correct Answer: B
…
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Latest RedHat EX294 dumps Exam Questions:
From
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
geekcert
15
Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 8
EX294
Question 1:
Create a playbook called timesvnc.yml in /home/sandy/ansible using the system role time sync. Set the time to use the currently configured nip with the server 0.uk.pool.ntp.org. Enable burst. Do this on all hosts.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 2:
Create a playbook called webdev.yml in \’home/sandy/ansible. The playbook will create a directory Avcbdev on the dev host. The permission of the directory is 2755 and the owner is webdev. Create a symbolic link from /Web dev to /var/www/html/web dev. Serve a file from Avebdev7index.html which displays the text “Development” Curl http://node1.example.com/webdev/index.html to test
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 3:
Prevent Mary from performing user configuration tasks in your system.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Conclusions:
1. I find that it is common to add various service access limits in the exam RHCE. The exercises like:
require one network segment can be accessed another network segment can not be accessed, the following are some conclusions for various services:
tcp_wrappers:/etc/hosts.allow,/etc/hosts.deny
tcp_wrappers can filter the TCP\’s accessing service. TCP has the filtering function which depends on this service whether uses the function library of tcp_wrappers, or this service whether has the xinetd process of starting the function of
tcp_wrappers. tcp_wrappers\’s main configuration file is /etc/hosts.allow,/etc/ hosts.deny.
And the priority of the documents in hosts. allow is higher than hosts. deny. The visit will be passed if no match was found.
sshd,vsftpd can use the filtering service of tcp_wrappers.
Configuration example:
Notice:
The two configuration files\’ syntax can refer to hosts_access (5) and hosts_options(5) sshd_config There are four parameters in this configuration file: DenyUsers, AllowUsers, DenyGroups, AllowGroups, they are used to limit some users or
user groups to proceed with Remote Login through SSH. These parameters\’ priority level is DenyUsers->AllowUsers->DenyGroups->AllowGroups Configuration example:
httpd Service Through the /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf in parameters, can add to control the url access. Just as:
Notice:
So pay attention, deny\’s and allow\’s priority level in order deny, allow is: the backer has the higher priority level. But here, allow\’s priority has a higher priority level.
NFS Service
NFS service directly controls the visits through file /etc/exports, just as:
samba Service
Parameter hosts allow in /etc/samba/smb.conf which is used as Access Control, just as:
2.
Paying attention to using Mount parameters: _netdev, defaults when you are mounting ISCSI disk.
3.
Stop the NetworkManager /etc/init.d/NetworkManager stop chkconfig NetworkManager off
4.
When you are deploying ifcfg-ethX, add parameters: PEERDNS=no
5.
Empty the firewall in RHCSARHCE:
6.
Narrow lv steps:
7.
Mount the using command – swap which is newly added in /etc/fstab
8.
If Verification is not passed when you are installing software, can import the public key: rpm import /etc/PKI/ rpm…/…release and so on. In yum. repo, you also can deploy gpgkey, for example, gpgkey=/etc/PKI/rpm…/ …release
9.
When you are using the “Find” command to search and keep these files, pay attention to using cp -a to copy files if you use user name and authority as your searching methods.
Question 4:
SIMULATION
You are giving RHCE exam. The examiner gave you the Boot related problem and told to you that make successfully boot the System. When you started the system, System automatically asking the root password for maintenance. How will you fix that problem?
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 5:
Create a playbook called issue.yml in /home/sandy/ansible which changes the file /etc/issue on all managed nodes: If the host is a member of (lev then write “Development” If the host is a member of the test then write “Test” If the host is a member of prod then write “Production”
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 6:
SIMULATION
Given the kernel of permanent kernel parameters: sysctl=1. It can be shown on the cmd line after restarting the system. Kernel of /boot/grub/grub.conf should be a34dded finally, as:
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 7:
Make an on /storage directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
1.
chmod 770 /storage
2.
Verify using: ls -ld /storage
Note:
The preview should be like this: drwxrwx— 2 root sys users 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /storage To change the permission on the directory we use the chmod command. According to the question, only the owner user (root) and group member (sys users) can
fully access the directory so:
chmod 770 /archive
Question 8:
SIMULATION
Please open the ip_forward and take effect permanently.
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 9:
SIMULATION
There are Mail servers, Web Servers, DNS Servers, and Log Server. Log Server is already configured. You should configure the mail server, web server, and DNS server to send the logs to the log server.
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 10:
There were two systems:
system1, the main system on which most of the configuration takes place system2, some configuration here
We can add the cron schedule either by specifying the script’s path on the/etc/crontab file or by creating a text file on the crontab pattern.
cron helps to schedule recurring events. The pattern of cron is: Minute Hour Day of Month Month Day of Week Commands
0-59 0-23 1-31 1-12 0-7 where 0 and 7 mean Sunday.
Note * means every. To execute the command every two minutes */2.
…
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geekcert is an open and inclusive website, we will distribute some free 300-410 exam questions and answers from time to time for your online exam practice test:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured IP SLA on R1 to avoid the ISP link flapping problem, but it is not working as designed. IP SLA should wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection and then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds when the primary link is available and stabilized.
R1# *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) Change #8 ip sla 700, state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) Change
9 ip sla 700, state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18
15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing
Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1 (config-track)#delay down 30 up 20
B. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 30 up 20
C. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 20 up 30
D. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1(config-track)#delay down 20 up 30
Correct Answer: A
“wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection” -> delay down 30
“then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds” -> up 20 Under the tracked object, you can specify delays so we have to configure delay under “track 700 ip sla 700” (not under “ip sla 700”).
QUESTION 2:
The exhibit is a frame relay hub-and-spoke topology with router A as the hub.
You want to use the OSPF routing protocol between all three locations. Which interface configuration commands are required on router A? (Choose three.)
A. ip ospf network broadcast
B. ip ospf network point-to-point
C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
D. frame-relay map 10.20.10.21 221
E. frame-relay map 10.20.10.22 222
F. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.21 221 broadcast
G. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.22 222 broadcast
Correct Answer: CFG
In OSPF point-to-multipoint mode, the routers will automatically identify each neighbor. The election of a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) are not required.
This RFC-compliant mode of operation is commonly found in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke designs. In the diagram shown in the scenario, router A is the hub.
The frame relay serial interface has one DLCI for each spoke location. DLCI 221 is used by router A to communicate with router C and DLCI 222 is used to communicate with router B. On the router, A\’s serial interface, the point-to-multipoint mode is enabled with the ip ospf network configuration command. The following is the syntax of the ip ospf network command:
broadcast – This mode enables the interface to emulate a LAN. This mode requires a full or partial mesh topology.
nonbroadcast – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is also referred to as NBMA mode. The neighbors must be statically configured.
point-to-multipoint – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is used in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke.
Routers use additional LSAs to discover neighboring routers instead of manually defining DRs and BDRs.
The hub router floods
link state updates (LSUs) by duplicating the update to be sent to each router using the respective DLCI.
point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast – This is a Cisco extension to the point-to-multipoint mode.
This mode is useful when the frame relay virtual circuits do not support broadcast traffic. Neighbors are manually defined.
There is no point-to-point parameter for the ip ospf command. Creating a point-to-point configuration differs in that the point-to-point parameter is executed as a parameter of the command that creates the subinterface that hosts the point-to-point connection as shown below:
Router(config)# interface serial 0.1 point-to-point
When configuring a serial interface without sub-interfaces, OSPF will check the encapsulation to determine the network type. HDLC and PPP default to point-to-point while Frame-Relay encapsulation defaults to nonbroadcast.
The frame-relay map command identifies the mapping between the Layer 3 address (IP address) and the Layer 2 address (DLCI). The frame relay virtual circuits from the hub router are identified as supporting broadcast traffic by using the frame-relay map command with the broadcast keyword.
Objective:
Layer 2 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Explain Frame Relay
References:
Cisco > Home > Support > Support Technology > Support > IP Routing > Configure > Configuration Examples and Technotes > Initial Configurations for OSPF over Frame Relay Subinterfaces Cisco > Cisco IOS Wide-Area Networking Command Reference > frame-relay lap n201 through fr-atm connect dlci > frame-relay map
QUESTION 3:
You manage the company network, as shown in the network diagram below: You executed the following command on RouterA:
Which of the following statements are TRUE about the given set of commands? (Choose two.)
A. A static default route is created on RouterA
B. A summary default route is created on RouterA
C. The default route is redistributed into the EIGRP network
D. The default route is not advertised to the EIGRP network
Correct Answer: AC
The given set of commands creates a static default route on RouterA and redistributes this route into the EIGRP company network. The ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 command executed in the global configuration mode creates a static default route on the router.
The ip route command allows you to specify a static route. The redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500 command then redistributes the static default route into the EIGRP autonomous system (AS)
This implies that the EIGRP network identifies the default route as an external route, and traffic to all unknown destination subnets will be diverted to the default route.
Alternatively, default routes can be advertised into EIGRP networks by either of the following methods: Using the network 0.0.0.0 command on the router Using the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command on the router
A summary default route is not created on RouterA in the scenario. If the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command was used on RouterA, then a summary default route would be created.
The summary default route points to the 0.0.0.0 network with the null0 interface as the next-hop interface. Summary default routes are helpful for providing remote networks with a default route.
The default route is advertised to the EIGRP network because the redistribute command was executed.
This command is used to advertise the default route to the EIGRP network.
Objective:
Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify default routing
References:
Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Design > Design TechNotes > Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper > Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
QUESTION 4:
What is a characteristic of Layer 3 MPLS VPNs?
A. Traffic engineering capabilities provide QoS and SLAs.
B. Traffic engineering supports multiple IGP instances.
C. LSP signaling requires the use of unnumbered IP links for traffic engineering.
D. Authentication is performed by using digital certificates or preshared keys.
Correct Answer: A
MPLS traffic engineering supports only a single IGP process/instance
The MPLS traffic engineering feature does not support the routing and signaling of LSPs over unnumbered IP links.
After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers.
B. Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process.
C. Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes.
D. Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0.0 from the network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8:
The network administrator must configure R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using RADIUS.
ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1 (192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.
The administrator has configured this on R1:
aaa new-model! radius-server ISE1 address ipv4 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123 ! aaa group server tacacs+ RAD-SERV server name ISE1 ! aaa authentication login default group RAD-SERV
The network administrator cannot authenticate to access R1 based on ISE. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?
A. line vty 0 4 login authentication RAD-SERV
B. aaa group server tacacs+ ISE1 server name RAD-SERV
C. aaa group server radius RAD-SERV server name ISE1
D. line vty 0 4 login authentication default
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11:
An engineer configured VRF-Lite on a router for VRF blue and VRF red. OSPF must be enabled on each VRF to peer to a directly connected router in each VRF.
Which configuration forms OSPF neighbors over the network 10.10.10.0/28 for VRF blue and 192.168.0.0/30 for VRF red?
A. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.252 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.240 area 0
B. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.15 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.240 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
D. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192 168.0.0 0.0.0.15 are 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and now PC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2
B. Filter OSPF routes into RIP from EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2
C. Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.
D. Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2
E. Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.
Correct Answer: AB
Even PC2 cannot reach PC1 so there is something wrong with RIP redistribution in R2. Because RIP has higher Administrative Distance (AD) value than OSPF and EIGRP so it will be looped when doing mutual redistribution.
QUESTION 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from ethernet0/0 of R1. Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. flow monitor Flowmonitor1 source Ethernet0/0
B. interface Ethernet0/1 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output
C. interface Ethernet0/0 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output
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A company\’s bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company\’s forensics team to assist in the cyber-incident investigation.
An incident responder learns the following information:
The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs.
All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the hardwired network.
Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL inspection occurs, were unaffected.
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites
B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM
C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges
D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network
The purchases are only getting affected from systems where SSL inspection is occurring. It’s fine on all others. IT cant be an HTTPS downgrade as that wouldn’t be specific to the SSL inspection.
Question 2:
Which of the following would produce the closest experience of responding to an actual incident response scenario?
A. Lessons learned
B. Simulation
C. Walk-through
D. Tabletop
Question 3:
During a trial, a judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. Which of the following BEST explains this reasoning?
A. The forensic investigator forgot to run a checksum on the disk image after the creation
B. The chain of custody form did not note time zone offsets between transportation regions
C. The computer was turned off. and a RAM image could not be taken at the same time D. The hard drive was not properly kept in an antistatic bag when it was moved
The question states that a trial Judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. It is obvious that this is a legal matter. All of the remaining answers are of a technical nature, So consequently the only issue that a Judge can rule on is a Chain of custody issue. So, ladies and gentlemen, I rest my case (quickly bangs a gavel upon the desk)
Question 4:
A security analyst is reviewing logs on a server and observes the following output:
Which of the following is the security analyst observing?
A network administrator at a large organization is reviewing methods to improve the security of the wired LAN. Any security improvement must be centrally managed and allow corporate-owned devices to have access to the intranet but limit others to Internet access only. Which of the following should the administrator recommend?
A. 802.1X utilizing the current PKI infrastructure
B. SSO to authenticate corporate users
C. MAC address filtering with ACLs on the router D. PAM for user account management
It\’s possible to combine an 802.1x server with other network elements such as a virtual local area network (VLAN). For example, imagine you want to provide visitors with Internet access but prevent them from accessing internal network resources. You can configure the 802.1x server to grant full access to authorized clients but redirect unauthorized clients to a guest area of the network via a VLAN.
Question 6:
A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a reek of this practice?
A. Default system configuration
B. Unsecure Protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption
Question 7:
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to Implement?
A. DLP
B. USB data blocker
C. USB OTG
D. Disabling USB ports
The best solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations would be to use a USB data blocker. A USB data blocker is a device that can be used to physically block the data pins on a USB cable, preventing data transfer while still allowing the device to be charged. This would prevent employees from accidentally or maliciously transferring sensitive data from their cell phones to the public charging station. Options A, C, and D would not be effective in preventing this type of data exfiltration
Question 8:
Which of the following is MOST likely to contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented?
A. An RTO report
B. A risk register
C. A business impact analysis
D. An asset value register
E. A disaster recovery plan
A risk register is a document that records all of your organization \’s identified risks, the likelihood and consequences of a risk occurring, the actions you are taking to reduce those risks, and who is responsible for managing them
Question 9:
A security analyst is receiving several alerts per user and is trying to determine If various logins are malicious. The security analyst would like to create a baseline of normal operations and reduce noise. Which of the following actions should the security analyst perform?
A. Adjust the data flow from authentication sources to the SIEM.
B. Disable email alerting and review the SIEM directly.
C. Adjust the sensitivity levels of the SIEM correlation engine.
D. Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM\’s learning mode.
Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM\’s learning mode.
UBA or User Behavior Analytics is a threat detection analysis technology that uses AI to understand how users normally behave and then find anomalous activities, which deviate from their normal behavior and may be indicative of a threat.
For this scenario, the SIEM will first learn what is normal behavior then when a baseline is created, it will know if any of the logins are malicious. Likely determined by when and where the logins are occurring and if it\’s different from the baseline. This should hopefully reduce the number of alerts occurring.
Question 10:
A security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:
1.
Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.
2.
A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).
3.
Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.
Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Choose two.)
A. Containerization
B. Storage segmentation
C. Posturing
D. Remote wipe
E. Full-device encryption
F. Geofencing
Question 11:
A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day, impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi network are not impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected.
Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit the SIP protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack? (Choose two.)
A. DoS
B. SSL stripping
C. Memory leak
D. Race condition
E. Shimming
F. Refactoring
A DoS attack is a type of cyber attack that is designed to disrupt the availability of a network, system, or service. In this case, the attacker is using the exploit outlined in the CVE to disrupt the availability of Internet and VoIP services at the university\’s remote campuses.
A Memory Leak is a type of software bug that occurs when a program or application allocates memory for a task but fails to release the memory when it is no longer needed. This can lead to a depletion of available memory resources, causing the system to crash or become unstable. The fact that the outages at the university are occurring at random intervals and are being caused by system reloads suggests that a Memory Leak may be present.
Question 12:
The new Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a large company has announced a partnership with a vendor that will provide multiple collaboration applications t make remote work easier. The company has a geographically dispersed staff located in numerous remote offices in different countries. The company\’s IT administrators are concerned about network traffic and load if all users simultaneously download the application.
Which of the following would work BEST to allow each geographic region to download the software without negatively impacting the corporate network?
A. Update the host IDS rules.
B. Enable application whitelisting.
C. Modify the corporate firewall rules.
D. Deploy all applications simultaneously.
Question 13:
The website http://companywebsite.com requires users to provide personal information, including security question responses, for registration. Which of the following would MOST likely cause a data breach?
A. Lack of input validation
B. Open permissions
C. Unsecure protocol
D. Missing patches
Website is using HTTP which is the unsecured protocol of HTTP
Question 14:
An organization is planning to open other data centers to sustain operations in the event of a natural disaster. Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization\’s resiliency?
A. Geographic dispersal
B. Generator power
C. Fire suppression
D. Facility Automation
Placing that data center far away, maybe in another country can help protect against disasters like an earthquake
Question 15:
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) at a major hospital wants to implement SSO to help improve in the environment of patient data, particularly at shared terminals. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is concerned that training and guidance have been provided to frontline staff, and risk analysis has not been performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of CRO\’s concerns?
A. SSO would simplify username and password management, making it easier for hackers to pass guess accounts.
B. SSO would reduce password fatigue, but staff would still need to remember more complex passwords.
C. SSO would reduce the password complexity for frontline staff.
D. SSO would reduce the resilience and availability of the system if the provider goes offline.
SSO works based upon a trust relationship set up between an application, known as the service provider, and an identity provider, like OneLogin. This trust relationship is often based upon a certificate that is exchanged between the identity provider and the service provider. This certificate can be used to sign identity information that is being sent from the identity provider to the service provider so that the service provider knows it is coming from a trusted source. In SSO, this identity data takes the form of tokens which contain identifying bits of information about the user like a user\’s email address or username.
…
Verify answer:
Questions:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Answers:
B
B
B
C
A
B
B
B
D
AD
AC
B
C
A
D
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