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Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-100.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities,security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell

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QUESTION 1
To which Azure AD role should you add User4 to meet the security requirement?
A. Password administrator
B. Global administrator
C. Security administrator
D. Privileged role administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directory tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
All users have client computers that run Windows 10 Pro and are joined to Azure AD.
The company purchases a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription.
You need to upgrade all the computers to Windows 10 Enterprise. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
You assign licenses from the Microsoft 365 admin center.
What should you do next?
A. Add a custom domain name to the subscription.
B. Deploy Windows 10 Enterprise by using Windows Autopilot.
C. Create provisioning package, and then deploy the package to all the computers.
D. Instruct all the users to log off of their computer, and then to log in again.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You upload several archive PST files to Microsoft 365 by using the Security and Compliance admin center.
A month later, you attempt to run an import job for the PST files.
You discover that the PST files were deleted from Microsoft 365.
What is the most likely cause of the files being deleted? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the
BEST answer.
A. The PST files were corrupted and deleted by Microsoft 365 security features.
B. PST files are deleted automatically from Microsoft 365 after 30 days.
C. The size of the PST files exceeded a storage quota and caused the files to be deleted.
D. Another administrator deleted the PST files.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/faqimporting-pst-files-to-office-365

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the application requirement for App1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the application URL settings.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add an enterprise application.
C. On an on-premises server, download and install the Microsoft AAD Application Proxy connector.
D. On an on-premises server, install the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
E. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Software download settings.
Correct Answer: ABC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy#how-application-
proxy-works

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains Microsoft Exchange Online.
You plan to enable calendar sharing with a partner organization named adatum.com. The partner organization also has
a Microsoft 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that the calendar of every user is available to the users in adatum.com immediately.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange admin center, create a sharing policy.
B. From the Exchange admin center, create a new organization relationship.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, modify the Organization profile settings.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure external site sharing.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/sharing/organization-relationships/create-an-organization-
relationship

QUESTION 6
Your company has an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization.
The company has 100 users.
The company purchases Microsoft 365 and plans to move its entire infrastructure to the cloud.
The company does NOT plan to sync the on-premises Active Directory domain to Microsoft Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD).
You need to recommend which type of migration to use to move all email messages, contacts, and calendar items to
Exchange Online.
What should you recommend?
A. cutover migration
B. IMAP migration
C. remote move migration
D. staged migration
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mailbox-migration/cutover-migration-to-office-365

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You suspect that several Microsoft Office 365 applications or services were recently updated.
You need to identify which applications or services were recently updated.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Message center blade.
B. From the Office 365 Admin mobile app, review the messages.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Products blade.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Service health blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which migration solution should you recommend for Project1?
A. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxImportRequest cmdlet.
B. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxExportRequest cmdlet.
C. From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Upload PST as the data service.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a
WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using
the
main office connections.
Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.
The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.
You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.
Solution: For each device, you configure an additional Outlook profile that uses IMAP.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains
a user named User1.
You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User1 from the past 24
hours.
To which three roles should you add Admin1? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Security administrator
B. Password administrator
C. User administrator
D. Compliance administrator
E. Reports reader
F. Security reader
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Security Administrator
B. Records Management
C. Security Reader
D. Hygiene Management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
The domain contains 100 user accounts.
The city attribute for all the users is set to the city where the user resides.
You need to modify the value of the city attribute to the three-letter airport code of each city.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Administrative Center, select the Active Directory users, and then modify the Properties
settings.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select the users, and then use the Bulk actions option.
C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser and Set-AzureADUser cmdlets.
D. From Windows PowerShell on a domain controller, run the Get-AzureADUser and Set-AzureADUser cmdlets.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: design and implement Microsoft 365 services; manage user identity and roles; manage access and authentication; and plan Office 365 workloads and applications.

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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-101.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain.
Your company has a security policy that prevents additional software from being installed on domain controllers.
You need to monitor a domain controller by using Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure port mirroring.
B. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure detections.
C. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure detections.
D. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure port mirroring.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that user access to Dropbox is authenticated by using a Microsoft 365 identity. The documents
must be protected if the data is downloaded to an untrusted device. What should you do?
A. From the Intune admin center, configure the Conditional access settings.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Organizational relationships settings.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Application proxy settings.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Devices settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company has 5,000 Windows 10 devices. All the devices are protected by using Windows Defender Advanced
Threat Protection (ATP).
You need to view which Windows Defender ATP alert events have a high severity and occurred during the last seven
days.
What should you use in Windows Defender ATP?
A. the threat intelligence API
B. Automated investigations
C. Threat analytics
D. Advanced hunting
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/investigate-
alerts-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-
protection/windows-defender-atp/automated-investigations-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that the support technicians can meet the technical requirement for the Montreal office mobile
devices. What is the minimum of dedicated support technicians required?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 31
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to investigate user activity in Microsoft 365, including from where users signed in, which applications were
used, and increases in activity during the past month. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which admin center should you use?
A. Azure ATP
B. Security and Compliance
C. Cloud App Security
D. Flow
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-
compliance

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.
Users in the research department work with sensitive data.
You need to prevent the research department users from accessing potentially unsafe websites by using hyperlinks
embedded in email messages and documents. Users in other departments must not be restricted.
What should you do from the Security and Compliance admin center?
A. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition.
B. Modify the default safe links policy.
C. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition.
D. Create a new safe links policy.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/set-up-atp-safe-links-policies#policies-that-
apply-to-specific-email-recipients

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant.
The company sells products online and processes credit card information.
You need to be notified if a file stored in Microsoft SharePoint Online contains credit card information. The file must be
removed automatically from its current location until an administrator can review its contents.
What should you use?
A. a Security and Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policy
B. a Microsoft Cloud App Security access policy
C. a Security and Compliance retention policy
D. a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to identify which users performed the following privileged administration tasks: Deleted a folder from the
second-stage Recycle Bin of Microsoft SharePoint Opened a mailbox of which the user was not the owner Reset a user
password
What should you use?
A. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) audit logs
B. Security and Compliance content search
C. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) sign-ins
D. Security and Compliance audit log search
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/activity-logs-overview

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content.
What should you do?
A. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet.
B. From Azure Information Protection, create a policy.
C. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet.
D. From Azure Information Protection, configure the protection activation status.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/kemckinn/2018/05/17/creating-labels-for-azure-information-protection/

QUESTION 10
You plan to use the Security and Compliance admin center to import several PST files into Microsoft 365 mailboxes.
Which three actions should you perform before you import the data? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, create a public folder.
B. Copy the PST files by using AzCopy.
C. From the Exchange admin center, assign admin roles.
D. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create a storage account that has a blob container.
E. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, deploy an add-in.
F. Create a mapping file that uses the CSV file format.
Correct Answer: BCF
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pst-files

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the technical requirement for the EU PD. data. What should you create?
A. a retention policy from the Security and Compliance admin center.
B. a retention policy from the Exchange admin center
C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Exchange admin center
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Security and Compliance admin center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a user named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can place a hold on all mailbox content.
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. eDiscovery Manager from the Security and Compliance admin center
B. compliance management from the Exchange admin center
C. User management administrator from the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. Information Protection administrator from the Azure Active Directory admin center
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/permissions/feature-permissions/policy-and-compliance-
permissions?view=exchserver-2019

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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement modern device services; implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management; and manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance.

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Exam MS-200: Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-200

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.

Skills measured

• Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
• Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
• Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.

You have the recipients shown in the following table.

The groups contain the members shown in the following table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/upgrade-distribution-lists?view=o365-worldwide#which-distribution-lists-can-be-upgraded

QUESTION 2
Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription.
You have several transport rules. The rules automatically apply a disclaimer to email messages that contain certain
keywords in the subject and are sent to recipients in an email domain named fabrikam.com.
You receive a report that some messages are delivered without the disclaimer.
You need to view which transport rules were applied to messages sent to the fabrikam.com recipients.
What should you use?
A. a URL trace
B. a message trace
C. the SMTP protocol logs
D. the transport logs
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/monitoring/trace-an-email-message/run-a-message-trace-and-view-results

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors.
EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network.
The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator
requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery.
You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent
connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that will contain the servers shown in the following
table.

The sites connect to each other by using a high-cost, slow WAN link. Each site also connects directly to the Internet.
You need to ensure that outgoing email to the Internet always uses a server in the local site.
What should you create?
A. one Send connector that uses two smart hosts
B. two Send connectors that use different smart hosts
C. two scoped Send connectors that have the same namespace
D. two Send connectors that have different namespaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization.
Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com.
You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server.
You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client
computers.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2.
You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site.
You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover.
What should you do?
A. Create an SRV record named AutoDiscover.
B. Create a TXT record named AutoDiscover.
C. Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery
database.
B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then
restore a backup of the database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You configure the accepted domains as shown in the following table.

You configure the MX records in DNS as shown in the following table.

In the Exchange organization you create a mail user named User1 who has the following email addresses:
[email protected] [email protected] [email protected]
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server organization that contains the servers shown in the following table.

Users access their email by using Outlook on the web.
You install Office Online Server in the London and Seattle offices.
You need to ensure that users can view Microsoft Office attachments within Outlook on the web without downloading
the attachments. The solution must ensure that the users can open the attachments by using the nearest server that
runs
Office Online Server.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the
following output.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier
that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization named litwareinc.com.
The organization publishes Exchange services by using a namespace of mail.litwareinc.com.
You deploy a new server named EX10 to the organization.
User reports that sometimes they receive warnings about certificate errors when they connect to their mailbox. The
warning message reference is ex10.litwareinc.com.
You need to resolve the issue.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Remove-MobileDevice
B. Clear-MobileDevice
C. Clear-Content
D. Remove-ActiveSyncDevice
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to implement the required changes to the current Exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set up directory synchronization.
B. Create a remote domain.
C. Configure an email address policy.
D. Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E. Configure an internal relay accepted domain.
Correct Answer: CE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

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Latest updates Cisco 500-601 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the valid shard range for an object DN?
A. 1-64
B. 1-16
C. 0-15
D. 1-32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco ACI interaction with STP in legacy networks are true? (Choose two)
A. External switches ignore flooded BPDU frames received from the Cisco ACI fabric.
B. BPDU guard is enabled on FEX ports by default.
C. BPDU guard cannot be configured on leaf edge ports.
D. STP is enabled by default within the Cisco ACI fabric.
E. BPDU frame is flooded within EPG No configuration is required.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0? (Choose two.)
A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit shell:domains = domain / Role1 | Role2 | Role3 / Role4 | Role5 | Role6
In the Cisco AV Pair, which two options are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Role1 = Read
B. Role2 = Read
C. Role5 = Write
D. Role2 = Write
E. Role6 = Write
F. Role1 = Write
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true\\’? (Choose
two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Where does the VIP for the vPC come from?
A. assigned by Cisco ARC from the management tenant IP space.
B. allocated from the vPC domain number assigned to the vPC peers.
C. DHCP from the infra TEP pool leaf portion.
D. DHCP from the infra TEP pool VIP portion.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to successfully SSH into a Cisco ARC or switch CLI using a remote authentication server?
A. apic#rad_check//[email protected]
B. ssh apic#rad_check\\[email protected]
C. ssh apic#ad_ch?k//[email protected]
D. ssh apic@rad_check\\[email protected]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
F16438[FSM:STAGE:FAILED]: Establish connection Stage: comp/prov-VMware/ ctrlr-[RTPACILab]-TestVcenter Failed
to retrieve ServiceContent from the vCenter server 10.122.253.152(FSM-STAGE:ifc:vmmmgr:CompCtrlrAdd:Connect)

Which option is a potential reason why you would see this output while provisioning a DVS?
A. The specified data center does not exist on the vCenter m question.
B. The Cisco APIC(s) cannot reach the vCenter host/vm.
C. The Service Content process has crashed.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the vswitch policy tied to the corresponding AAEP.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the EAP Authentication type on the left to the accurate description provided on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting rogue access points that are showing up in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
What is the maximum number of APs the engineer can use to contain an identified rogue access point in the WLC?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be
configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement?
A. self-registration guest portal
B. client provisioning
C. native supplicant provisioning
D. local web auth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options are types of MFP that can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. message integrity check
B. infrastructure
C. client
D. AES-CCMP
E. RSN
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/82196-mfp.html#climfp

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose
two)
A. DHCP profiling
B. DHCP address assignment
C. passive client
D. RADIUS NAC
E. AAA override
Correct Answer: DE
Allow AAA Override: Enabled NAC State: Radius NAC (selected)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/113476-wireless-byod-ise-00.html

QUESTION 6
An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a wireless LAN controller and wants to use the combination of authentication
and privacy protocols with the highest security available. Which protocols must be configured?
A. CBC-DES with HMAC-MD5
B. CFB-AES-128 with HMAC-MD5
C. CBC-DES with HMAC-SHA
D. CBF-AES-128 with HMAC-SHA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An engineer is working on a remote site that is configured using FlexConnect. They are worried that the access points
will not send RADIUS requests directly to the authentication server is standalone mode. Which command ensures direct
authentication using the default ports as defined on the WLC?
A. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
B. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
C. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
D. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring a BYOD deployment strategy and prefers a single SSID model. Which technology is required
to accomplish this configuration?
A. mobility service engine
B. wireless control system
C. identity service engine
D. Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Please refer to the section “Single SSID Wireless BYOD Self Registration” of the below mentioned link.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/how_to/HowTo-61-BYOD-Onboarding_Registering_and_Provisioning.pdf

QUESTION 9
An engineer is changing the authentication method of a wireless network from EAP-FAST to EAP-TLS. Which two
changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Secure ACS is required.
B. A Cisco NAC server is required.
C. All authenticating clients require their own certificates.
D. The authentication server now requires a certificate.
E. The users require the Cisco AnyConnect client.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1300-series/prod_qas09186a00802030dc.html

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What do the red circles represent in the exhibit?

A. detected interferers
B. wIPs attacker
C. RSSI cutoff
D. zones of impact
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series,
CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table
below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/mobility/configuration_guide/b_mobility_3se_3850_cg/b_mobility_32se_3850_cg_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 12
How should the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2 and the Cisco WLC v7.0 be configured to support wireless client
authentication?
A. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (Cisco Airespace)
B. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (IETF)
C. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco Airespace)
D. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco IOS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option determines which RADIUS server is preferred the most by the Cisco WLC?
A. the Server Index (Priority) drop-down list
B. the server status
C. the server IP address
D. the port number
Correct Answer: A
If you are adding a new server, choose a number from theServer Index (Priority) drop-down list to specify the priority
order of this server in relation to any other configured RADIUS servers providing the same service. You can configure
up to 17 servers. If the controller cannot reach the first server, it tries the second one in the list, then the third one if
necessary, and so on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html

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Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are employed as a network administrator at consoto.com.
Contoso.com has in an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All Servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
A contoso.com server ,named Server1,hosts the Active Directory Certificate Services Server role and utilizes a
hardware security module(HSM) to safeguard its private key.
You have beed instructed to backup the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) database,log files,and private key
regularly.
You should not use a utility supplied by the hardware security module (HSM) creator.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider scheduling an incremental backup
B. You Should consider making use of the certutil.exe command.
C. You should consider schedulling a differential backup
D. You should consider schedulling a copy backup
Correct Answer: B
A. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
B. -Backup, -backupdb, -backupKey: You can use Certutil.exe to dump and display certification authority (CA)
configuration information, configure Certificate Services, backup and restore CA components, and verify certificates, key
pairs, and certificate chains.
C. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
D. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
http://technet.microsoft.com/library/cc732443.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backup http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupDB
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/ library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupKey
http://blogs.technet.com/b/pki/archive/2010/04/20/disaster-recovery-procedures-for- theactive-directorycertificate-
services-adcs.aspx

QUESTION 2
You network contains one Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
All domain computers use Server1 for DNS.
You sign adatum.com by using DNSSEC.
You need to configure the domain computers to validate DNS responses for adatum.com records.
What should you configure in Group Policy?
A. Network List Manager Policies
B. Network Access Protection (NAP)
C. Name Resolution Policy
D. Public Key Policy
Correct Answer: C
Name resolution policy needs to be configured in group policy. “In both example 1 and example 2, validation is not
required for the secure.contoso.com zone because the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is not configured to
require validation.” https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj200221.aspx

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receives the following error message.

You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not
appear. What should you do?
A. Run the Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet.
B. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Add Admin1 to the Cert Publishers group.
Correct Answer: B
*
Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services The error message is related to missing role configuration.
*
Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and
Certification Authority Web Enrollment Roles.
*
Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) is an Active Directory tool that lets administrators customize services in
order to issue and manage public key certificates.
AD CS included:
CA Web enrollment – connects users to a CA with a Web browser Certification authorities (CAs) – manages certificate
validation and issues certificates Etc.
Incorrect:
Not A. The CA is installed, it just need to be configured correctly.
Note: Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority
The Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet performs installation and configuration of the AD CS CA role service.
Reference: Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services in Server 2012 Error 0x800070002; Active Directory
Certificate Services (AD CS) Definition
http://searchwindowsserver.techtarget.com/definition/Active-Directory-Certificate-Services- AD-CS

QUESTION 4
You are about to promote a server running the Windows Server 2012 R2 operating system to domain controller.
The domain is currently running at the Windows Server 2008 domain functional level.
Your account is a member of the Domain Admins group.
Which additional groups should your account be a member of to ensure that the environment is appropriately configured
for this domain controller running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose two. Each answer forms part of a complete
solution.)
A. Schema Admins
B. Enterprise Admins
C. Account Operators
D. Server Operators
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports
that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a kernel-mode driver only if the
kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver
development and non-automated testing.Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs. Not C. Developer would not
be able to test the driver as needed. Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to
test
the driver as needed and some file loss.
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134246.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/hardware/ff547565(v=vs.85).aspx

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 has an IPv6 scope named
Scope1.
You implement an additional DHCP server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to provide high availability for Scope1. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Install and configure Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server1 and Server2.
B. Create a scope on Server2.
C. Configure DHCP failover on Server1.
D. Install and configure Failover Clustering on Server1 and Server2.
Correct Answer: C
Overview: Configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console To configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console, right-
click a DHCP scope or right- click IPv4 and then click Configure Failover.Configure Failover
The Configure Failover wizard guides you through configuring DHCP failover on the selected scope.
Note: The DHCP server failover feature, available in Windows Server 2012 and later, provides the ability to have two
DHCP servers provide IP addresses and option configuration to the same subnet or scope, providing for continuous
availability of DHCP service to clients.
Incorrect:
Not A. NLB is not related to DHCP scope availability.
Not B. DHCP failover requirements include:
DHCP Scopes requirement:
At least one IPv4 DHCP scope must be configured on the primary DHCP server. The same DHCP scope ID, or an
overlapping scope, must not be configured on the failover partner.
Not D. Failover clustering is possibly, but would not minimize administration.
Reference: Deploy DHCP Failover

QUESTION 7
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
From the Group Policy Management console, you view the details of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 as
shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that the comments field of GPO1 contains a detailed description of GPO1.
What should you do?
Exhibit: * Missing*
A. From Group Policy Management, click View, and then click Customize.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, edit the properties of
contoso.com/System/Policies/{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE –ED765F065FF5}.
C. Open GPO1 in the Group Policy Management Editor, and then modify the properties of GPO1.
D. From Notepad, edit \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE
–ED765F065FF5}\gpt.ini.
Correct Answer: C
You can include comments for each Group Policy object. You can use this space to document the Group Policy object
and why its implementation is important to your environment. Commenting GPOs allows you to later use keyword filter
to
help you quickly find GPOs with matching keywords.
Adding a comment to a Group Policy object
Open the Group Policy Management Console. Expand the Group Policy Objects node.
Right-click the Group Policy object you want to comment and then click Edit . In the console tree, right-click the name of
the Group Policy object and then click Properties .
Click the Comment tab.
Type your comments in the Comment box.
Click OK
Reference: Comment a Group Policy Object
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770974.aspx

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named corp.contoso.com.
You deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
You have a rights policy template named Template1. Revocation is disabled for the template.
A user named User1 can open content that is protected by Template1 while the user is connected to the corporate
network.
When User1 is disconnected from the corporate network, the user cannot open the protected content even if the user
previously opened the content.
You need to ensure that the content protected by Template1 can be opened by users who are disconnected from the
corporate network.
What should you modify?
A. The User Rights settings of Template1
B. The templates file location of the AD RMS cluster
C. The Extended Policy settings of Template1
D. The exclusion policies of the AD RMS cluster
Correct Answer: C
*
The extended rights policy of a template controls how content licenses are to be implemented. The extended rights
policy template settings are specified by using the Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
administration site. The available settings control persistence of author rights, whether trusted browsers are supported,
license persistence within the content, and enforcement of any application-specific data.
*
You can add trust policies so that AD RMS can process licensing requests for content that was rights protected.
Reference: Extended Policy Template Information; AD RMS and Server Design http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ee221071(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1
and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role
installed.
Server2 is a file server.
Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO)
while they are connected to the internal network.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory.
B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service.
D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2.
E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2.
Correct Answer: AC
*
Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows
Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a
device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and
used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate
which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined.
*
In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the
most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device
combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices,
locations, and access times.
Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The forest
contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC. The sites contain four domain controllers. The
domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless all of the domain
controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Crate additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
Correct Answer: C
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by SiteB rather than
by SiteA.

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager
role service installed. You attempt to delete a classification property and you receive the error message as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to delete the isConfidential classification property. What should you do?
A. Delete the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
B. Disable the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
C. Set files that have an isConfidential classification property value of Yes to No.
D. Clear the isConfidential classification property value of all files.
Correct Answer: A
You would have to delete the classification rule in order to delete the classification property.

QUESTION 12
Your network contans one active directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You perform daily backups of the data on Server1 to microsoft azure.
You need to restore the data from the 1st backup of Server1 to Server2.
What should you do first?
A. On Server2, install the azure backup agent.
B. In the domain, add server1 to the backup operators group.
C. From the azure management portal, modify the configuration of the backup vault.
D. On Server2, install the windows server backup feature.
Correct Answer: A
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/backup-azure-restore-windows- server/#recover-to-an-
alternate-machine

QUESTION 13
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the ocsetup.exe command
C. the setup.exe command
D. the Install-Module cmdlet
Correct Answer: A
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:ServerGui- Shell /featurename:Server-
Gui-Mgmt

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Exam 70-463: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-463.aspx

Skills measured

• Design and implement a data warehouse (10–15%)
• Extract and transform data (20–25%)
• Load data (25–30%)
• Configure and deploy SSIS solutions (20–25%)
• Build data quality solutions (15–20%)

Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-463 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to five servers.
The package must meet the following requirements:
.NET Common Language Runtime (CLR) integration in SQL Server must not be enabled.
The Connection Managers used in the package must be configurable without editing and redeploying the package.
The deployment procedure must be automated as much as possible.
Performance must be maximized.
You need to set up a deployment strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
E. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe
utility.
H. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of
development effort.
What should you use?
A. Express on task
B. Data Cleansing transformation
C. Fuzzy Lookup transformation
D. Term Lookup transformation
E. Data Profiling task
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse
every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used
the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest-
matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading
performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment Model.
The project will be deployed to an SSIS catalog folder where Environments have already been created. You need to
deploy the project.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow,
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: M

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse. The
package consists of several data flow tasks.
The package experiences intermittent errors in the data flow tasks.
If any data flow task fails, all package error information must be captured and written to a SQL Server table by using an
OLE DB connection manager.
You need to ensure that the package error information is captured and written to the table.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow.
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) data flow to load sales transactions from a source system
into a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. One of the columns in the data source is named
ProductCode.
Some of the data to be loaded will reference products that need special processing logic in the data flow.
You need to enable separate processing streams for a subset of rows based on the source product code.
Which Data Flow transformation should you use?
A. Script Component
B. Audit
C. Destination Assistant
D. Data Conversion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other
tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have
their TransactionOption property set to Supported.
You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes.
What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137749.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en
us/library/microsoft.sqlserver.dts.runtime.dtstransactionoption.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table
contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Partition the fact tables by day.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Join the two fact tables.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are designing an Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) solution that loads data into dimension tables. The ETL
process involves many transformation steps.
You need to ensure that the design can provide:
Auditing information for compliance and business user acceptance Tracking and unique identification of records for
troubleshooting and error correction
What should you do?
A. Develop a Master Data Services (MDS) solution.
B. Develop a Data Quality Services (DQS) solution.
C. Create a version control repository for the ETL solution.
D. Develop a custom data lineage solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are designing a fact table in a SQL Server database.
The fact table must meet the following requirements:
Include a columnstore index.
Allow users to choose up to 10 dimension tables and up to five facts at one time.
Maximize performance of queries that aggregate measures by using any of the 10 dimensions.
Support billions of rows.
Use the most efficient design strategy.
You need to design the fact table to meet the requirements. What should you do? (More than one answer choice may
achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns.
B. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
measure columns.
C. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns and the measure columns.
D. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on only
the measure columns.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
To support the implementation of new reports, Active Directory data will be downloaded to a SQL Server database by
using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2012 package.
The following requirements must be met: All the user information for a given Active Directory group must be downloaded
to a SQL Server table. The download process must traverse the Active Directory hierarchy recursively.
You need to configure the package to meet the requirements by using the least development effort.
Which item should you use?
A. Script task
B. Script component configured as a transformation
C. Script component configured as a source
D. Script component configured as a destination
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources.
One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors.
Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination.
You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement.
Which transformation types should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Slowly Changing Dimension
B. pivot
C. Lookup
D. Union All
E. Merge
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to read and write data from a Windows Azure SQL
Database database to a server that runs SQL Server 2012.
The connection will be used by data flow tasks in multiple SSIS packages. The address of the target Windows Azure
SQL Database database will be provided by a project parameter.
You need to create a solution to meet the requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort and
maximizing data flow performance.
What should you do?
A. Use an SSIS Script task that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
B. Use an SSIS Script transformation that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
C. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) function that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data,
deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
D. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) stored procedure that uses the custom assembly to parse the
text data, deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices acts as a gateway between clients and servers?
A. WINS server
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. DNS server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the
following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a
communication channel.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time?
A. Network log
B. Baseline
C. Flow data
D. Interface statistics
Correct Answer: B
To successfully baseline a network it is important to consider two functions; performance at protocol level and
performance at application level. There are many significant metrics to consider at the protocol level, but only a few
which are critical. The most important is bandwidth utilization compared with bandwidth availability. The most likely
cause of poor network performance is insufficient bandwidth. Trending bandwidth utilization allows you to recognize
problem areas, provide enough bandwidth to reach performance objectives, and predict future capacity requirements.
Changes in bandwidth utilization patterns also provide a clear indication of network usage alterations, such as a change
in end-user behavior, or the unauthorized addition of an application.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following wireless parameters may need to be modified when a new cordless telephone is installed?
A. Encryption type
B. SSID
C. IP address
D. Channel
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
Correct Answer: B
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the
Earth\\’s surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in
common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will
have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
Correct Answer: A
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every
computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a
management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs,
as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

QUESTION 7
A company has a remote access VPN and wants to ensure that if a username and password are compromised, the
corporate network will remain secure. Which of the following will allow the company to achieve its security goal?
A. Posture assessment
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS+
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network administrator wants to perform a test to see if any systems are passing clear text through the network. Which
of the following would be used?
A. Social engineering
B. Packet sniffing
C. Rogue access point
D. Man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is tasked with rewiring a CAT5e SOHO network with 10 existing computers. The users are currently
running at 100 Mbps and would like to be upgraded to 1000 Mbps. Which of the following should the technician do
FIRST?
A. Upgrade the existing computers
B. Purchase a new 802.11ac access point and install.
C. Install CAT6 wiring for the SOHO network
D. Verify the network cards can support 1Gbps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?
A. Cable has been looped too many times.
B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C. Cable is too warm.
D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.
Correct Answer: D
Cat 5 is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks
such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-
TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

QUESTION 11
An 802.11b wireless network has a maximum data rate of:
A. 11 Mbps.
B. 20 Mbps.
C. 28 Mbps.
D. 54 Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all network
devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC adapter. Which of the
following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of the VoIP system? (Select
THREE).
A. WEP
B. PoE
C. VLANs
D. SSL VPN
E. IDS
F. QoS
Correct Answer: BCF
As customer don\\’t want to use Ac adapter so Power over Ethernet is best option (PoE) as in this switch provide power
to phones.Phones will transfer their power requirement via cdp to vlan assigned.And Qos provide the voice packet
priority over the data packets to avoid jitter.

QUESTION 13
Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-
house support.
Which of the following is the BEST choice?
A. Wide Area Network
B. NAT
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: C
Virtual PBX, a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, fax- mail, and ACD queues
with no customer installed equipment.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are considered AAA authentication methods? (Select TWO).
A. Kerberos
B. Radius
C. MS-CHAP
D. TACACS+
E. 802.1X
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
There has been an increase in Help Desk tickets related to web portal user accounts being locked out. Which of the
following resources would be used to analyze the issue?
A. Router logs
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Firewall logs
D. Application logs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall for both DNS and eDNS.
Which of the following default ports would need to be opened on the firewall? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 23
B. TCP 53
C. TCP 123
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can
be used for two or more networking cards?
A. NIC bonding
B. Proxy server
C. Firewall ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A user reports that they are unable to connect to the network. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that the
user has an IP address/subnet mask combination of 192.168.204.255/24. The default gateway for the network is
192.168.204.254.
Which of the following could the user\\’s IP address be changed to so that they could connect to the network?
A. 192.168.204.0/27
B. 192.168.204.1/27
C. 192.168.204.112/24
D. 192.168.204.254/24
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks?
A. Host-based
B. Signature-based
C. Network-based
D. Behavior-based
Correct Answer: B
Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences known to be malicious.
A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and understand if you know what
network behavior you\\’re trying to identify.

QUESTION 20
A user is unable to open up websites on the Internet from a browser. The administrator determines that the workstation
can ping its local gateway, but not the remote web server. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the
problem MOST likely exist?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Session
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN\\’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client
computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers
use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP?
A. LDAP
B. HTTPS
C. SIP
D. SCP
Correct Answer: C
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling communications protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.

QUESTION 23
Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network\\’s wireless infrastructure is
comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used
exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their
devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as
they move between buildings?
Building A Building B Building C Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption:
WPA2 SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
Correct Answer: D
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is
different so the user has to manually authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings.
If the SSID\\’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and he will get automatic connectivity.

QUESTION 24
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the
following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
Correct Answer: CD
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible
that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the
important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.

QUESTION 25
A network has a large number of users who connect for short periods of time and the network needs to maximize the
number of devices that can be configured using DHCP. Which of the following should be configured to solve this issue?
A. Increase the number of reservations
B. Increase exclude list
C. Decrease lease times
D. Decrease the scope
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following protocols occurs at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
A. ISDN
B. IPX
C. GRE
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
A technician is troubleshooting a problem where data packets are being corrupted. Which of the following connectivity
problems should the technician check?
A. Attenuation
B. Latency
C. Crosstalk
D. External interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Users in several departments are reporting connectivity problems. The technician examines the computer and finds the
following settings. The IP address is 10.0.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The default gateway is 10.0.1.1 and
the DNS server is 10.0.0.15. A user can connect to the internet but not servers on other internal subnets. The technician
is not able to connect with a server with an IP of 10.0.2.25.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Default gateway
B. Duplicate IP address
C. Wrong DNS
D. Subnet mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following commands would be used to identify how many hops a data packet makes before reaching its
final destination?
A. route
B. netstat
C. traceroute
D. ping 127.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to access most
network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this functionality?
A. RADIUS
B. Single sign on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B
Single sign-on (SSO)is a session/user authentication process that permits a user to enter one name and password in
order to access multiple applications. The process authenticates the user for all the applications they have been given
rights to and eliminates further prompts when they switch applications during a particular session.

QUESTION 31
Which of the following do 802.11 networks use to handle packet collisions from multiple nodes?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSU/DSU
C. Ethernet Tokens
D. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods,
and preventing real attacks on the production network?
A. Evil twin
B. Honeypot
C. DMZ
D. Honeynet
Correct Answer: B
In computer terminology, a honeypot is a trap set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at
unauthorized use of information systems.

QUESTION 33
Which of the following can determine the last time an address lease was renewed on a network device?
A. System log
B. Packet sniffer
C. Time domain reflectometer
D. Stateful packet filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to
power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of
the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
Correct Answer: B
The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

QUESTION 35
Which of the following transmission methods do DHCP enabled devices use to request an IP address?
A. Broadcast
B. Directed broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A network administrator is configuring PXE boot to reimage a computer lab.
Which of the following must be configured on the existing DHCP server to specify the IP address of the imaging server
from which the clients must boot?
A. Scope
B. Reservation
C. Option
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the
active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always
use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not
need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 38
A SOHO client has tasked Joe, a technician, with setting up a basic SOHO network to support four laptops and one
desktop PC. The client would also like to have a basic wireless network to use for internal devices only that is secure.
Given the list of requirements, which of the following devices would Joe need to purchase for his client? (Select TWO).
A. IDS
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. WAP
E. UTM device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address
settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
Correct Answer: D
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view
information about the configured network interfaces.

QUESTION 40
A computer has lost network connectivity. The network technician determines the network cable and the cable drop are
both good. Which of the following would the technician use to test the computer\\’s NIC?
A. Cable certifier
B. Throughput tester
C. Loopback plug
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: C

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New Microsoft Certification 70-774 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module.
What capability does the module provide?
A. Outputting a file to a network location.
B. Performing interactive debugging of a Python script.
C. Saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file.
D. Visualizing univariate and multivariate summaries by using Python code.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You have an untrained Azure Machine Learning model that you plan to train to predict flight delays.
You need to assess the variability of the dataset and the reliability of the predictions from the model.
Which module should you use?
A. Cross-Validate Model
B. Evaluate Model
C. Tune Model Hyperparameters
D. Train Model
E. Score Model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have data about the following:
You need to predict whether a user will like a particular movie.
Which Matchbox recommender should you use?
A. Item Recommendation
B. Related Items
C. Rating Prediction
D. Related Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You plan to predict flight delays that are 30 minutes or more. You need to build a training model that accurately fits the data. The solution must minimize over fitting and minimize data leakage.
Which attribute should you remove?
A. OriginAirportID
B. DepDel
C. DepDel30
D. Carrier
E. DestAirportID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that you can compare the performance of the models and add annotations to the results.
Solution: You connect the Score Model modules from each trained model as inputs for the Evaluate Model module, and use the Execute R Script module.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. 70-774 dumps
You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Column1 is empty.
You need to omit Column1 from the dataset. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio.
You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit.
You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server.
Which SGD algorithm should you use?
A. DataParallelASGD
B. DataParallelSGD
C. ModelAveragingSGD
D. BlockMomentumSGD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Machine Learning environment.
You are evaluating whether to use R code or Python.
Which three actions can you perform by using both R code and Python in the Machine Learning environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Preprocess, cleanse, and group data.
B. Score a training model.
C. Create visualizations.
D. Create an untrained model that can be used with the Train Model module.
E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You need to remove rows that have an empty value in a specific column. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 10
You are building an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You need to transform 47 numeric columns into a set of 10 linearly uncorrelated features.
Which module should you add to the experiment?
A. Principal Component Analysis
B. K-Means Clustering
C. Normalize Data
D. Group Data into Bins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have a dataset that is missing values in a column named Column3. Column3 is correlated to two columns named Column4 and Column5. You need to improve the accuracy of the dataset, while minimizing data loss.
What should you do?
A. Replace the missing values in Column3 by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
B. Remove all of the rows that have the missing values in Column4 and Column5.
C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You need to use R code in a Transact-SQL statement to merge the repeating values 1 through 6 with Col1 in a table.
Which statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You plan to create a predictive analytics solution for credit risk assessment and fraud prediction in Azure Machine Learning. The Machine Learning workspace for the solution will be shared with other users in your organization. You will add assets to projects and conduct experiments in the workspace.
The experiments will be used for training models that will be published to provide scoring from web services.
The experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem.
You finish training the model and are ready to publish a predictive web service that will provide the users with the ability to specify the data source and the save location of the results. The model includes a Split Data module.
Which two actions should you perform to convert the Machine Learning experiment to a predictive web service? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets.
Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
You have an Execute R Script module that has one input from either a Partition and Sample module or a Web service input module.
You need to preprocess tweets by using R. The solution must meet the following requirements:
How should you complete the R code? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar panes or scroll to view content. 70-774 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You need to remove the bias and to identify the columns in the input dataset that have the greatest predictive power.
Which module should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate modules to the correct requirements. Each module may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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New Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device

QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers. 70-342 dumps
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account.
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.

QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.
Reference: Configuring Unified Messaging on Microsoft Exchange Server to Work with Lync Server 2013

QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user. 70-342 dumps
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done. 70-342 dumps
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

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