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Best Huawei HCNA-Cloud H13-511 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration BPDU can not be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The Layer 2 packet header in EAPoL packets is | DMAC | SMAC | TYPE | EAPOL | FCS |. H13-511 dumps Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The destination address of packets is a specified MAC address.
B. The destination address of packets is a unicast MAC address.
C. EAPoL packets cannot be forwarded by switches.
D. The source MAC address of packets is the MAC address of the interface that sends packets.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which statements are false?
A. The VLAN mapping function is usually configured on the edge node of a public network.
B. The VLAN mapping function can save VLAN resources on a public network.
C. VLAN mapping allows private networks on different VLANs to communicate with each other over the ISP network.
D. VLAN mapping allows only the private networks on the same VLAN to communicate with each other.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statements about the VLAN on S series switches are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN IDs on the switch range from 1 to 4090.
B. The switch has a default VLAN.
C. The priority value in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. A VLAN tag contains one byte.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 10
If the customer requires high mobility and easy management, the staff of different departments can be added to different VLANs. In addition, these VLANs are located on different IP subnets.
Which VLAN allocation mode can meet these requirements?
A. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses
B. VLAN allocation based on destination IP addresses
C. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses and source MAC addresses
D. VLAN allocation based on destination MAC addresses and destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statements about the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Only the VLAN whose ID is the same as the PVID of the access interface are allowed on the access interface.
B. When receiving an untagged frame, the access interface adds its own PVID to the frame.
C. The access interface sends only untagged frames to the peer device.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 12
Which statements about MUX VLAN are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs cannot communicate.
B. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The subordinate VLANs are classified into subordinate separate VLANs and subordinate group VLANs. The interfaces in the subordinate group VLAN can communicate with each other.
C. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs can communicate.
D. The interfaces of different subordinate separate VLANs can communicate with each other, but cannot communicate with the interfaces in the principal VLAN.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLAN mapping is true?
A. The interface configured with VLAN mapping must be a hybrid interface.
B. The same VLANs on different interfaces cannot be mapped to different VLANs.
C. Different VLANs on the same interface can be mapped to the same VLAN.
D. Any types of interfaces can be configured with VLAN mapping.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which VLAN assignment methods are supported by the Huawei S9300? H13-511 dumps (Select 3 Answers)
A. Assigning VLANs based on Layer 7 protocols
B. Assigning VLANs based on protocols
C. Assigning VLANs based on IP subnets
D. Assigning VLANs based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 15
Which statements about VLAN aggregation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. “multiple” VLANs (broadcast domains) are on the same physical network; therefore, different VLANs belong to the same subnet.
B. VLAN aggregation can save IP addresses.
C. Only the super VLAN requires an IP address, but sub-VLANs do not need.
D. The VLAN that is used to separate broadcast domains is called super VLAN.
Correct Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 16
Which statement about the VLAN on a Layer 2 switch is true?
A. The CFI in the VLAN tag specifies whether the priority in the VLAN tag is valid.
B. The VLAN tag is located in the Layer 2 header of a packet.
C. The CFI in the VLAN tag contains two bits.
D. A VLAN on the switch is a broadcast domain. The broadcast domains are separated.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statements about VLAN allocation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The IP subnet VLAN is used to send the packets from the specified network segment or IP address over the specified VLAN.
B. The MAC address- or IP subnet-based VLAN is valid for only the untagged packets.
C. The protocol-based VLAN has a higher priority than the IP subnet-based VLAN.
D. The protocol-based VLAN indicates that service types on the network are bound to VLANs.
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 18
When the GVRP registration mode is FORBIDDEN, no VLAN can be created or registered on the interface. In addition, which VLANs are deregistered on the interface?
A. All VLANs except VLAN 1
B. All VLANs except VLAN 4095
C. All VLANs
D. All VLANs except the VLAN specified by the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The dot1x command is used to enable 802.1x authentication globally or on an interface. Which statements about the undo dot1x command are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication globally.
B. It will disconnect online users from the interface; therefore, use the command with caution.
C. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication on an interface.
D. Ensure that there are no online users before you run the undo dot1x command. Otherwise, running the undo dot1x command fails.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 20
After detecting a user with a new MAC address, the switch initiates an EAP authentication request.
If the client does not respond and the MAC address bypass authentication is not configured, H13-511 dumps which statement is false?
A. If the client does not respond after the number of authentication requests reaches a specified
value, the switch considers that the client software is not installed.
B. All permissions of the user are prohibited.
C. The user is allowed to access only the isolated zone.
D. Detection is initiated again after a period of time.
Correct Answer: B

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Real (1-30) questions and answers for Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? 200-125 dumps
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. 200-125 dumps What is the cause of the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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Best Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design.
What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are working on a network design plan for a company with approximately 2000 sites. The sites will be connected using the public Internet. You plan to use private IP addressing in the network design, which will be routed without NAT through an encrypted WAN network. Some sites will be connected to the Internet with dynamic public IP addresses, and these addresses may change occasionally.
Which VPN solution will support these design requirements?
A. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
B. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
C. GET VPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with DMVPN through the public Internet.
D. DMVPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with GET VPN through the public Internet.
E. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
F. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the- middle attacks.
When evaluating the network, which switch security option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC address mapping?
A. ARP rate limiting
B. DHCP snooping
C. Dynamic ARP Inspections
D. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are the lead IP/MPLS network designer of a service provider called XYZ. You are leading a design discussion regarding IPv6 implementation in the XYZ MPLS network, using MPLS 6PE/6VPE techniques. 352-001 dumps
Currently, XYZ provides IPv4 multicast services over an MPLS network by using MVPN, and would like to provide parallel IPv6 multicast services.
Which three multicast solutions should be enabled? (Choose three.)
A. native IPv6, only for multicast services
B. MPLS 6PE/6VPE, because it provides IPv6 multicast support by default
C. an overlay model using Layer 2 MPLS tunnels
D. PIM-DM to enable IPv6 multicast in conjunction with MPLS 6PE/6VPE
E. MVPN for IPv6 multicast service
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct about route reflector design?
A. Route reflectors should be placed to find the best exit point from the AS.
B. The EIGRP unequal cost, load-balancing characteristic facilitates route reflector placement.
C. Route reflectors should not be placed on the data path
D. Route reflectors help find the closest exits from the AS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network. Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Root Guard
E. DTP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You are a network designer who must fine tune the convergence of an IS-IS network. The failure detection mechanism has been addressed with reliable loss-of-signal at the interface level.
Which three other tools or techniques should be employed to achieve your requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use prefix prioritization techniques.
B. Use BFD on point-to-point links.
C. Speed up LSP generation.
D. Disable LDP-IGP synchronization.
E. Speed up the initial link state computation.
F. Eliminate the time that the overload bit is advertised to neighbors.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.

Company ACME is adding a Cisco TelePresence system for real-time collaboration and wants to ensure the highest user experience. Drag and drop the necessary QoS mechanisms from the left to the right in any order. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
When a design calls for spanning VLANs across a campus network, what are two issues that need to be addressed in the design?
(Choose two.) 352-001 dumps
A. network convergence
B. network accessibility
C. fault isolation
D. application scalability
E. user experience
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What is a key role for the access layer in a hierarchical network design?
A. The access layer provides a security, QoS, and policy trust boundary.
B. The access layer provides an aggregation point for services and applications.
C. The access layer serves as a distribution point for services and applications.
D. The access layer can be used to aggregate remote users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company is designing a service provider network management solution in which customers are billed for 95th percentile network utilization. The service provider requires that an IETF standard be utilized to collect the data.
Which method should be used to collect the data?
A. IPFIX
B. NETFLOW
C. RMON
D. IPFLOW
E. NBAR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are designing a solution to eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization on a core network composed of CRS-1 devices.
Which option would eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization across the network?
A. Use Local Packet Transport Services (LPTS) to manage hardware SNMP flow rate.
B. Use the in-band control plane policy feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
C. Use the control plane policy feature and reduce SNMP flow rate.
D. Use control-plane management-plane in-band and reduce the SNMP flow rate.
E. Use the control-plane management-plane out-of-band feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You work for a large company that has just acquired another smaller company. You have been asked to lead a group of SAN experts from both companies to design the integration plan that will be used to interconnect the SANs and migrate the data from the newly acquired company to the main storage arrays.
The first thing that the team discovers is that the two SANs have the same domain IDs.
As the SAN team lead, what would you advise your team to do so that you can interconnect the two SANs while minimizing disruption?
A. Use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer between the two SANs.
B. Change the domain IDs on both SANs so that they are both unique and then connect ISLs between the SANs.
C. Use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs.
D. The two SANs cannot be merged without disruption.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge router. 352-001 dumps Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will have the most negative impact on the delay of the packet?
A. encryption
B. stateful firewall
C. MPLS encapsulation
D. GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network.
Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Port Security
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
There is an MPLS-enabled link constantly flapping on an MPLS VPN network.
Given that the network runs OSPF as the IGP protocol, which design mechanism will stabilize the network and avoid constant reconvergences?
A. BFD
B. IP Event Dampening
C. OSPF fast hellos
D. partial SPF
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A Service Provider network designer is considering the use of the G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection mechanism in order to provide resiliency in the network.
Which three concepts will be supported with the implementation G.8032? (Choose three.)
A. Ring Protection Link (RPL)
B. Ring Automatic Protection Switching (R-APS)
C. Multi-Router Automatic Protection Switching (MR-APS)
D. Automatic Protection Switching (APS) Channel
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco IOS or configuration file, from one device to another.
Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a DTE device? 640-692 dumps
A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.

QUESTION 2
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+

QUESTION 3
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic 100-105 dumps

What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt
B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4



What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Use the andquot;show interface s0/0andquot; to see the bandwidth set at 16 Kbit/sec. The show interface s0/0 command results will look something like this and the bandwidth will be represented by this.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update.

QUESTION 6
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.



Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the
destination port.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 11
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are maintaining an application that uses the Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) to serve terabytes of content that is stored in page blobs.
Your bill for CDN services is higher than you expect.
You need to monitor the application to find issues that increase costs.
Which two operations should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Time-To-Live (TTL) of the blobs.
B. The country of origin for the client computer and the CDN region.
C. The number of requests that result in an HTTP status code over 400.
D. The allocated size of page blobs.
E. The expiration date of the blobs.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time. 70-532 dumps
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN). Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are developing a web application that integrates with Azure Active Directory (AD). The application uses the OAuth 2.0 protocol to authorize secure connections to a web service that is at https://service.adatum.com.
The application must request an access token to invoke the web service methods.
You need to submit an HTTP request to the Azure AD endpoint.
How should you complete the request? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.
Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs).
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
– Understand which storage areas perform operations that incur a fee.
– Understand which requests are denied because of insufficient permissions.
– Validate that the performance of the storage account meets the service level agreement (SLA) for the Azure Storage service.
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. 70-532 dumps
You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application.
You need to create five instances of the web role.
How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines. 70-532 dumps
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You store data in an Azure blob. Data accumulates at a rate of 0.10 GB per day.
You must use storage analytics data to verify that the service level agreement (SLA) has been met and to analyze the performance of VHDs, including the pattern of usage.
Analytics data must be deleted when it is older than 100 days or when the total amount of data exceeds 10 GB.
You need to configure storage analytics and access the storage analytics data.
Which two approaches will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Disable the data retention policy.
B. Access analytics data by using the Service Management REST APL
C. Access analytics data by using the APIs used to read blob and table data.
D. Configure a data retention policy of 100 days.
Correct Answer: CD

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On December 20, CompTIA unveiled a major extension of its certification program called CompTIA Stackable Certification. As far as I know, the idea is to take a combination of two or three kinds of credentials, common or typical, and give them their unique names.

CompTIA introduced “Stackable Certifications,” a new destination for the many of the vendor-neutral skills certifications that it offers. CompTIA Stackable certification follows two CompTIA career paths – infrastructure and cyber security – and offers many qualified routes for stackable certification.

CompTIA believes this is a significant expansion of the certification program that recognizes the deep expertise of certification holders and their unwavering commitment to continued professional growth and development.

“The technology professionals who’ve earned CompTIA Stackable Certifications have done so by passing rigorous exams developed by the industry to validate the technical and business skills that are in the highest demand in today’s economy,” said Todd Thibodeaux, president and CEO, CompTIA.

It means IT professionals’ efforts and skills not only to pursue one (or two) CompTIA certificates, but also to devote considerable time, effort and money to accumulating more of the organization’s supplier-neutral certificates.

This creates a veritable mix of announcements that include the following examples of basic authentication algorithms:
CompTIA A+ and CompTIA Network+ = CompTIA IT Operations Specialist
CompTIA A+ and CompTIA Linux+ = CompTIA Systems Support Specialist
CompTIA Network+ and CompTIA Server+ = CompTIA Network Infrastructure Professional
CompTIA Network+ and CompTIA Cloud+ = CompTIA Cloud Administration Professional
CompTIA A+, CompTIA Network+, and CompTIA Security+ = CompTIA Secure Infrastructure Associate
CompTIA Security+ and CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst = CompTIA Security Analytics Specialist
CompTIA Security+, CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst, and CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner = CompTIA Security Analytics Expert

More than 145,000 IT professionals with multiple CompTIA certifications have CompTIA Stackable certification.

Stackable certification follows two CompTIA career paths: CompTIA Infrastructure Career Path and CompTIA Web Security Career Path. Then, within each lane, stackable certificates are classified by experience level – Expert: Early Professional IT Professional with less than two years’ experience; Professional: Intermediate IT Professional with two to five years of experience; and Expert: Established more than five years of IT professionals.

Stackable certification requires a positive CE certification. CompTIA said that if you have a “good for life” certification, as long as you re-certification and confirm your skills are up-to-date, then this certification can also be certified.

A +, Network + and Security + are by far the most popular and widely used among the various certifications mentioned by this big group. Others such as Linux +, Server +, and Cloud + are more direct to network and system administrators in organizations of all sizes and sizes.

“More so than any other certifying body, CompTIA makes extensive use of performance-based questions and simulations in its exams,” said James Stanger, CompTIA’s chief technology evangelist. “These simulations accurately reflect the real-world scenarios IT pros face daily, requiring test-takers to demonstrate skills in networking, cybersecurity, and other areas under the pressure of a timed test.”

The goal of CSA and CASP is that full time security professionals work to protect organizations or customers from the threats of various security threats, risks and vulnerabilities.

If you have two or more CompTIA certifications yourself, you may need to log in to your CompTIA accredited account. You are also likely to qualify for some CompTIA stackable certification. This is not as rewarding as in the latest scratch scratch card, but it’s not a bad thing.

In addition, the more CompTIA certificates you have, the more stackable combinations that may appear in your favorites. Enjoy!

Reference: http://www.gocertify.com/articles/comptia-introduces-stackable-certifications

Related: http://www.channelpartnersonline.com/2017/12/20/comptia-offers-stackable-certifications/

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.
What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors. 70-410 dumps
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?

A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. 70-410 dumps You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You open Server Manager on Server2 as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
The Everyone group has read share permission and read NTFS permission to Sources. You need to ensure that when users browse the network, the Sources share is not visible.
What should you do?

A. From the properties of the Sources folder, remove the Sources share, and then share the Sources folder as Sources$
B. From the properties of the Sources folder, deny the List Folder Contents permission for the Everyone group
C. From the properties of the Sources share, configure access-based enumeration
D. From the properties of the Sources folder, configure the hidden attribute
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. 70-410 dumps You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.
D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed. Server1 is connected to two identical print devices. You need to ensure that users can submit print jobs to the print devices. The solution must ensure that if one print device fails, the print jobs will print automatically on the other print device.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers and configure the priority of each printer.
B. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
C. Install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature, and then add one printer.
D. Install the Failover Clustering feature, and then add one printer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You have a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 hosts a DNS zone named contoso.com and a GlobalNames zone. You discover that the root hints were removed from Server1. You need to view the default root hints of Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Event Viewer, open the DNS Manager log.
B. From Notepad, open the Cache.dns file.
C. From Windows Powershell, run Get-DNSServerDiagnostics.
D. From nslookup, run root server1.contoso.com
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter
B. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastlogon property.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a custom Data Collector Set (DCS) named DCS1. You need to configure DCS1 to meet the following requirements:
Automatically run a program when the amount of total free disk space on Server1 drops below 10 percent of capacity.
Log the current values of several registry settings.
Which two should you configure in DCS1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. System configuration information
B. A Performance Counter Alert
C. Event trace data
D. A performance counter
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 200 desktop computers that run Windows XP Service Pack 3 (SP3). All new desktop computers that are added to the domain run Windows 8. All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1to OU1. You need to ensure that GPO1 is Applied only to computers that run Windows XP SP3.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
B. Run the Set-GPInheritancecmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
C. Create and link a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. Run the Set-GPLinkcmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that Server1 can provide iSCSI storage for Server2 and Server3. 70-417 dumps What should you do on Server1?
A. Install the iSCSI Target Server role service and configure iSCSI targets
B. Start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service and configure the iSCSI Initiator Properties
C. Install the iSNS Server service feature and create a Discovery Domain
D. Install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature and configure the MPIO Properties
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The imagex.exe command
C. The Install-RoleServicecmdlet
D. The Add-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two sites named Main and Branch. The Main site contains 400 desktop computers and the Branch site contains 150 desktop computers. All of the desktop computers run Windows 8.
In Main, the network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You install the Windows Server Update Services server role on Server1.
You need to ensure that Windows updates obtained from Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) are the same for the computers in each site.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, create computer groups
B. From the Update Services console, configure the Computers options
C. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Update settings
D. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Anytime Upgrade settings
E. From the Update Services console, configure the Synchronization Schedule options
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. 70-417 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
Exhibit:

A. Create a superscope and a filter
B. Create a superscope and scope-level policies
C. Configure the Server Options
D. Configure the Scope Options
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 has several snapshots. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
B. Shut down VM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
C. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
D. Pause VM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The Active Directory Recycle bin is enabled for contoso.com.
A support technician accidentally deletes a user account named User1.
You need to restore the User1 account.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ldp
B. Esentutl
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Ntdsutil
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines.
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-417 dumps
Server1 is an enterprise root certification authority (CA) for contoso.com.
Your user account is assigned the certificate manager role and the auditor role on the contoso.com CA.
Your account is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.
You enable CA role separation on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can manage the certificates on the CA.
What should you do?
A. Remove your user account from the local Administrators group.
B. Assign the CA administrator role to your user account.
C. Assign your user account the Bypass traverse checking user right.
D. Remove your user account from the Manage auditing and security log user right.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a user account named User1 in the domain.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Windows Server Backup to back up Server1.
The solution must minimize the number of administrative rights assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right.
B. Add User1 to the Backup Operators group.
C. Add User1 to the Power Users group.
D. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right and the Restore files and directories user right.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is deployed in a web farm and is accessed by many users.
The application must handle web server failures gracefully. The servers in the farm must share the state information.
You need to persist the application state during the session.
What should you implement?
A. A state server
B. Cookieless sessions
C. A web garden on the web servers
D. An InProc session
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012. The application requires several thousand content files. All content is hosted on the same IIS instance as the application.
You detect performance issues when the application starts.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Enable compression in IIS.
B. Move the content to a second server.
C. Combine the content files by using ASP.NET MVC bundling.
D. Implement HTTP caching in IIS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to configure session storage in the web.config file to meet the technical requirements for scalability.
Which SessionState mode should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. StateServer
B. InProc
C. AutoDetect
D. SqlServer
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
An advertising campaign was recently launched. Some of the ads contain a link to products that no longer exist or have IDs that have changed. 70-486 dumps
You need to ensure that all product links display a product.
Which code segment should you use to configure the route?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to implement client-side animations according to the business requirements.
Which line of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”).fadeIn(1000);
B. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”)-fadeOut(1000);
C. $(“body h2:nth-child(1)”).animate({ opacity: 0 });
D. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”).animate({ opacity: 1 });
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
You need to authenticate clients by using NT LAN Manager (NTLM).
Which authentication method should you implement?
A. Basic
B. Windows
C. Forms
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to modify the application to meet the productId requirement.
Which code segment should you use?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data-oriented application that features a variety of storage schemas.
The application object model must be mapped to the various storage schemas.
You need to enable developers to manipulate the data.
Which ADO.NET data access strategy should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. LINQ to SQL
B. Entity Framework
C. DataAdapter
D. DataReader
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application to be used on the Internet. The environment uses Active Directory with delegation to access secure resources. 70-486 dumps
Users must be able to log on to the application to maintain their personal preferences.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to enable users to log on.
What should you do?
A. Enable Forms authentication
B. Enable Windows authentication
C. Generate server SSL certificates and install them in IIS
D. Enable Digest authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are developing an Azure worker role. You enable crash dump collection for the role.
When the role starts, an external application stops responding.
You need to download the crash dump to determine why the application stops responding.
From which two locations can you download the crash dump? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Azure Blob storage
B. the temp folder on the virtual machine that is running the role instance
C. Azure file storage
D. the DiagnosticStore local resource folder on the virtual machine that is running the role instance
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
You are designing a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service that uses the Product class. You need to update the class to meet the storage requirement.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Mark the Product class with the DataContract attribute.
B. Mark the public members of the Product class with the DataContractFormat attribute.
C. Mark the Product class with the CollectionDataContract attribute.
D. Mark the public members of the Product class with the DataMember attribute.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
You need to implement the business requirements for managing customer data.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a class named Customer-Controller to the Controllers folder. Then add a method named Edit to the class.
B. Create a new controller named Administration in the Controllers folder. Add an action named EditCustomer to the controller.
C. Add a folder named Customer to the Views folder. Then create a view inside this folder named Edit.aspx.
D. Create a new folder named EditCustomer to the Views folder. In the new folder, create a new file named Administration.aspx.
Correct Answer: AC

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