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For a temporary migration task the CPU core count on the Dell EMC PowerEdge R640 server needs to be reduced to 8 because the installed application will not work due to license restrictions. Use the simulator to apply the change so the application can be installed.
When you have finished using the simulator, click Next.
A. No answer B. Place Holder C. Place Holder D. Place Holder
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
A technician needs to change the iDRAC password on a Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G server in a lights-out datacenter.
The be rebooted because it is in production. The iDRAC is configured with the default credentials How could the technician change the iDRAC password?
A. SupportAssist Enterprise B. iDRAC Web GUI C. OpenManage Server Administrator D. Virtual Console; press F2 after rebooting system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
DRAG DROP
Match each status LED indicator on the Dell EMC 14G PowerEdge server with its corresponding condition. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4:
What is a key feature introduced in OpenManage Mobile v2.0?
A. Access servers remotely through OME B. Access SupportAssist reports C. Access a Virtual Console (VNC over SSH) securely D. Access iDRAC remotely
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5:
An engineer needs to install an additional PSU on an existing, single PSU Dell EMC PowerEdge R740. They complete the initial installation and cabling procedures. They connect an AC cable and the power distribution unit produces normal AC output. The engineer checks power management and sees that the new PSU is in a Failed state.
What task should be completed to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Confirm the System Input Power CAP is not set to Low B. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+1 C. Set the PSU AC redundancy to 1+0 D. Verify the new PSU is the same type and wattage rating
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
A technician installs eight servers into a fully operational rack with top of rack switch Each server has a quad 1Gb NIC and redundant power supplies The company uses iDRAC in shared LOM mode with LOM1 as the selected NIC
What should the technician do to verify iDRAC connectivity on each server?
A. iDRAC Datacenter license is installed. B. Ethernet port LOM1 is cabled and the link light is green. C. iDRAC dedicated NIC port is cabled and the link light is green D. iDRAC Enterprise license is installed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7:
What must be done before upgrading OMSA from the 32-bit to the 64-bit version?
A. Save the license file B. Disable UAC C. Back up the configuration D. Uninstall the earlier version
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
How can a technician know whether IDRAC9 System Lockdown mode is enabled?
A. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots
B. Lockdown activation message in the red box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots
C. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC is disabled when the server boots
D. Lockdown activation message in the yellow box in the iDRAC web GUI Access to LCC requires a password when the server boots
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
Does an engineer want to fully leverage Microsoft Windows Server 2016 for TPM-based guarded host deployment of a 14G server Which BIOS settings need to be used for installing the Windows server?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10:
Starting from which Dell EMC PowerEdge server hardware generation is the Micro SD card in the IDSDM/vFlash module supported?
A. 11G B. 12G C. 13G D. 14G
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11:
What are key values related to systems management when deploying OpenManage Enterprise wit Dell EMC PowerEdge servers?
A. Automate Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Simple and effective
B. Simplify Basic Hardware Element Management Agent-free Management Fee-based license
C. Simplify Fee-based license Agent-free Management Secure
D. Simplify Unify Automate Secure
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12:
What is a characteristic of out-of-band management?
A. Dedicated device B. Agent-based C. Less secure D. Dependent upon OS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
What is the Open Compute Project (OCP) card used for in a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?
A. Flexibility to choose interconnects B. Fixed networking card C. Consume a PCIe slot D. Provide a hot-swap component
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Certification: Nuage Networks Professional – Software-Defined Datacenter (NNP SD-DC)
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45-minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 40
Language: English
Price: $125 US
4A0-N01 Free dumps online reading:
QUESTION 1:
To auto-instantiate services on a 7750 DCI, which protocol needs to be enabled between the 7750 SR and VSD?
A. SNMP B. Openflow C. XMPP D. BGP EVPN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
What statement regarding VSD user management is TRUE?
A. We can create CMS user groups for each enterprise. B. Each enterprise user belongs to only one user group. C. Open LDAP and Active Directory can be integrated into VSD. D. LDAP integration is configured at the VSD global level, and it is not a configurable enterprise.
What statement about stateful ACL entries is FALSE?
A. They can track both TCP and UDP flows. B. They can be created in either ingress or egress directions. C. A packet in the direction of the stateful ACL rules will automatically create a “related” rule in the reverse direction. D. The automatically created rules will not go away until the ACL is manually deactivated and reactivated.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
What statement about Open vSwitch is TRUE?
A. It is a standard virtual switch that can run on any operating system. B. It can only be configured using Openflow by an SDN controller. C. It provides tunneling mechanisms, for example, VXLAN. D. It supports most of the open protocols, for example, OSPF, and BGP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
Which of the following is NOT a goal of NFV?
A. Reduce equipment cost B. Faster time-to-market for new services C. Efficiency through automation D. Increase network bandwidth
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6:
What statement regarding the VRS-G is FALSE?
A. The VRS-G is the software VXLAN/VLAN gateway of the Nuage VCS solution. B. The VRS-G is deployed on a hypervisor, following the same deployment requirements as a regular VRS. C. Virtual machines created on the hypervisor are attached to access ports on VRS-G. D. The network ports on VRS-G point towards the Nuage overlay VXLAN network.
Correct Answer: B
This permits the bridging of the hypervisor-focused overlay networking and physical devices in the data center.
What is the correct sequence of events for a VM to be instantiated, and for its required network connectivity to be created with the Nuage VCS solution?
a. Network domain and policy templates are defined on VSD. b. VSC queries VSD on network service and policies. c. VSD provides VSC with network service and policies. d. VRS agent informs VSC of the new VM placement. e. VSC deploys policy to applicable VRS agents. f. VM instantiated on the hypervisor.
A. a->b->c->d->e->f B. a->b->c->f->d->-e C. a->f->d->b->c->-e D. f->d->b->a>c->-e
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
Which of the following is a solution to create virtual machines in which the server runs the hypervisor as a specialized operating system and, as a consequence, there is no need for a conventional operating system?
A. Kernel B. Container C. Native hypervisor D. Hosted hypervisor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
What is the difference between host vPort and bridge vPort?
A. A host vPort is provisioned on VRS-G, while a bridge vPort is provisioned on VSG. B. A host vPort is provisioned for VLAN traffic, while a bridge vPort is for VxLAN traffic. C. A host vPort only supports one VLAN, while a bridge vPort can be configured with multiple VLANs. D. A host vPort requires static MAC address configuration, while a bridge vPort learns MAC addresses dynamically.
Correct Answer: A
Bridge vPort hosted in Nuage VSG/VSA Gateways Software, VRS and VRS-G hosted vPort
What statement is TRUE regarding multiple virtual IP addresses assigned to a single vPort?
A. The virtual IP addresses can be in a different subnet than the VM interface IP address. B. All virtual IP addresses of a vPort must be in the same subnet. C. One of the virtual IP addresses can be the same as the VM interface IP address. D. Every virtual IP address must be associated with a virtual MAC, which differs from the VM interface MAC address.
Correct Answer: A
If you have only one public IP address available, and you want to host multiple servers, use aVIP.
QUESTION 11:
What is NOT a component of VSD?
A. Neutron B. Statistics Engine C. Policy Management Engine D. RESTful API
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QUESTION 1
The Cisco DNA Center Sites API must be used to add a device to a site, but only the site name is available. Which API call must be used to retrieve the site identifier so that the device can be properly added to the network?
A. /dna/intent/api/site/siteId B. /dna/intent/api/site C. /dna/intent/api/v1/site D. /dna/intent/api/v1/site/siteName
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible “create int” task?
A. with_items: “{{intlist}}” B. with_parent: “{{intlist}}” C. with_list: “{{intlist}}” D. with_groups: “{{intlist}}”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to create a new network using the Meraki API. Which HTTP action to the URL
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the Ansible playbook to apply the configuration to an interface on a Cisco IOS XE device. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file named “device_status.py”. The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of Do commands insert the project into Git?
A configuration has been made to add to every switch port a new port description. The script worked initially, but after a few seconds, an HTTP 429 status code was received. What causes this error message from the Meraki cloud?
A. The wrong API key is used to query the data. B. The rate limit of the Cisco Meraki API is exceeded. C. The API key has expired. D. The device goes offline while you poll the API dashboard.
Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?
A. configuration changes are automatically activated B. uses the YANG data models to communicate C. supports JSON and data encoding D. validates the content of a candidate datastore
Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error?
A. The API user in Cisco DNA does not have to write privileges on the devices. B. The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15. C. The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format. D. Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
FILL BLANK Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.
Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging application when a rogue AP is detected on the network. The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the alert. A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration: send_to_application(message) The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val. Which Python Does the code complete the task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
For numbers in the range, a value is required for the application to send the alert. Besides are also included.
QUESTION 13
What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)
A. unencrypted B. non-cacheable C. stateless D. implemented over HTTP E. parameters passed in the headers
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QUESTION 1 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Henry Home Furnishings has built high-end furniture for nearly forty years. However, the new owner, Anton, has found some degree of disorganization after touring the company headquarters. His uncle Henry has always focused on production ? not data processing ? and Anton is concerned. In several storage rooms, he has found paper files, disks, and old computers that appear to contain the personal data of current and former employees and customers. Anton knows that a single break-in could irrevocably damage the company\\’s relationship with its loyal customers. He intends to set a goal of guaranteed zero loss of personal information. To this end, Anton originally planned to place restrictions on who was admitted to the physical premises of the company. However, Kenneth? his uncle\\’s vice president and longtime confidante? wants to hold off on Anton\\’s idea in favor of converting any paper records held at the company to electronic storage. Kenneth believes this process would only take one or two years. Anton likes this idea; he envisions a password-protected system that only he and Kenneth can access. Anton also plans to divest the company of most of its subsidiaries. Not only will this make his job easier, but it will simplify the management of the stored data. The heads of subsidiaries like the art gallery and kitchenware store down the street will be responsible for their own information management. Then, any unneeded subsidiary data still in Anton\\’s possession can be destroyed within the next few years. After learning of a recent security incident, Anton realizes that another crucial step will be notifying customers. Kenneth insists that the two lost hard drives in question are not cause for concern; all of the data was encrypted and not sensitive in nature. Anton does not want to take any chances, however. He intends on sending notice letters to all employees and customers to be safe. Anton must also check for compliance with all legislative, regulatory, and market requirements related to privacy protection. Kenneth oversaw the development of the company\\’s online presence about ten years ago, but Anton is not confident about his understanding of recent online marketing laws. Anton is assigning another trusted employee with a law background the task of the compliance assessment. After a thorough analysis, Anton knows the company should be safe for another five years, at which time he can order another check. Documentation of this analysis will show auditors’ due diligence. Anton has started down a long road toward improved management of the company, but he knows the effort is worth it. Anton wants his uncle\\’s legacy to continue for many years to come. In terms of compliance with regulatory and legislative changes, Anton has a misconception regarding? A. The timeline for monitoring B. The method of recordkeeping C. The use of internal employees D. The type of required qualifications Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements? A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties B. Look for overlaps in-laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations and inform stakeholders why they are applicable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as competitors was quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down. Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Mediaite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Mediaite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Mediaite to have absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost-effective.” You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps. You give a presentation to your CEO about privacy program maturity. What does it mean to have a “managed” privacy program, according to the AICPA/CICA Privacy Maturity Model? A. Procedures or processes exist, however they are not fully documented and do not cover all relevant aspects. B. Procedures and processes are fully documented and implemented and cover all relevant aspects. C. Reviews are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the controls in place. D. Regular review and feedback are used to ensure continuous improvement toward optimization of the given process. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://vvena.nl/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/aicpa_cica_privacy_maturity_model.pdf (page 2, 4th point under privacy maturity model)
QUESTION 4 Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which of the following situations would LEAST likely require a controller to notify a data subject? A. An encrypted USB key with sensitive personal data is stolen B. A direct marketing email is sent with recipients visible in the `cc\\’ field C. Personal data of a group of individuals are erroneously sent to the wrong mailing list D. A hacker publishes usernames, phone numbers, and purchase history online after a cyber-attack Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the notification, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. Informing the affected individuals that data from other individuals may have also been affected. B. Collecting more personally identifiable information than necessary to provide updates to the affected individuals. C. Using a postcard with the logo of the vendor who make the mistake instead of your company\\’s logo. D. Trusting a vendor to send out a notice when they already failed once by not encrypting the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development. You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear understanding of the need for change. Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place. Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective. You are left contemplating: What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention program? How can you build on your success? What are the next action steps? What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program being developed at Consolidated? A. Privacy by Design B. Privacy Step Assessment C. Information Security Planning D. Innovation Privacy Standards Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 What is the main purpose in notifying data subjects of a data breach? A. To avoid financial penalties and legal liability B. To enable regulators to understand trends and developments that may shape the law C. To ensure organizations have accountability for the sufficiency of their security measures D. To allow individuals to take any actions required to protect themselves from possible consequences Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy officer for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How would a strong data life cycle management policy have helped prevent the breach? A. Information would have been ranked according to the importance and stored in separate locations B. The most sensitive information would have been immediately erased and destroyed C. The most important information would have been regularly assessed and tested for security D. Information would have been categorized and assigned a deadline for destruction Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which was delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. How was Pacific Suites responsible for protecting the sensitive information of its offshoot, PHT? A. As the parent company, it should have transferred personnel to oversee the secure handling of PHT\\’s data. B. As the parent company, it should have performed an assessment of PHT\\’s infrastructure and confirmed complete separation of the two networks. C. As the parent company, it should have ensured its existing data access and storage procedures were integrated into PHT\\’s system. D. As the parent company, it should have replaced PHT\\’s electronic files with hard-copy documents stored securely on site. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which term describes a piece of personal data that alone may not identify an individual? A. Unbundled data B. A singularity C. Non-aggregated info point D. A single attribute Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Martin Briseno is the director of human resources at the Canyon City location of the U.S. hotel chain Pacific Suites. In 1998, Briseno decided to change the hotel\\’s on-the-job mentoring model to a standardized training program for employees who was progressing from line positions into supervisory positions? He developed a curriculum comprising a series of lessons, scenarios, and assessments, which were delivered in-person to small groups. Interest in the training increased, leading Briseno to work with corporate HR specialists and software engineers to offer the program in an online format. The online program saved the cost of a trainer and allowed participants to work through the material at their own pace. Upon hearing about the success of Briseno\\’s program, Pacific Suites corporate Vice President Maryanne Silva-Hayes expanded the training and offered it company-wide. Employees who completed the program received certification as a Pacific Suites Hospitality Supervisor. By 2001, the program had grown to provide industry-wide training. Personnel at hotels across the country could sign up and pay to take the course online. As the program became increasingly profitable, Pacific Suites developed an offshoot business, Pacific Hospitality Training (PHT). The sole focus of PHT was developing and marketing a variety of online courses and course progressions providing a number of professional certifications in the hospitality industry. By setting up a user account with PHT, course participants could access an information library, sign up for courses, and take end-of-course certification tests. When a user opened a new account, all information was saved by default, including the user\\’s name, date of birth, contact information, credit card information, employer, and job title. The registration page offered an opt-out choice that users could click to not have their credit card numbers saved. Once a user name and password were established, users could return to check their course status, review and reprint their certifications, and sign up and pay for new courses. Between 2002 and 2008, PHT issued more than 700,000 professional certifications. PHT\\’s profits declined in 2009 and 2010, the victim of industry downsizing and increased competition from e-learning providers. By 2011, Pacific Suites was out of the online certification business and PHT was dissolved. The training program\\’s systems and records remained in Pacific Suites\\’ digital archives, un-accessed and unused. Briseno and Silva-Hayes moved on to work for other companies, and there was no plan for handling the archived data after the program ended. After PHT was dissolved, Pacific Suites executives turned their attention to crucial day-to-day operations. They planned to deal with the PHT materials once resources allowed. In 2012, the Pacific Suites computer network was hacked. Malware installed on the online reservation system exposed the credit card information of hundreds of hotel guests. While targeting the financial data on the reservation site, hackers also discovered the archived training course data and registration accounts of Pacific Hospitality Training\\’s customers. The result of the hack was the exfiltration of the credit card numbers of recent hotel guests and the exfiltration of the PHT database with all its contents. A Pacific Suites systems analyst discovered the information security breach in a routine scan of activity reports. Pacific Suites quickly notified credit card companies and recent hotel guests of the breach, attempting to prevent serious harm. Technical security engineers faced a challenge in dealing with the PHT data. PHT course administrators and the IT engineers did not have a system for tracking, cataloging, and storing information. Pacific Suites has procedures in place for data access and storage, but those procedures were not implemented when PHT was formed. When the PHT database was acquired by Pacific Suites, it had no owner or oversight. By the time technical security engineers determined what private information was compromised, at least 8,000 credit card holders were potential victims of fraudulent activity. What key mistake set the company up to be vulnerable to a security breach? A. Collecting too much information and keeping it for too long B. Overlooking the need to organize and categorize data C. Failing to outsource training and data management to professionals D. Neglecting to make a backup copy of archived electronic files Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Your organization, the Chicago (U.S.)-based Society for Urban Greenspace, has used the same vendor to operate all aspects of an online store for several years. As a small nonprofit, the Society cannot afford the higher-priced options, but you have been relatively satisfied with this budget vendor, Shopping Cart Saver (SCS). Yes, there have been some issues. Twice, people who purchased items from the store have had their credit card information used fraudulently subsequent to transactions on your site, but in neither case did the investigation reveal with certainty that the Society\\’s store had been hacked. The thefts could have been employee-related. Just as disconcerting was an incident where the organization discovered that SCS had sold information it had collected from customers to third parties. However, as Jason Roland, your SCS account representative, points out, it took only a phone call from you to clarify expectations and the “misunderstanding” has not occurred again. As an information-technology program manager with the Society, the role of the privacy professional is only one of many you play. In all matters, however, you must consider the financial bottom line. While these problems with privacy protection have been significant, the additional revenues of sales of items such as shirts and coffee cups from the store have been significant. The Society\\’s operating budget is slim, and all sources of revenue are essential. Now a new challenge has arisen. Jason called to say that starting in two weeks, the customer data from the store would now be stored on a data cloud. “The good news,” he says, “is that we have found a low-cost provider in Finland, where the data would also be held. So, while there may be a small charge to pass through to you, it won\\’t be exorbitant, especially considering the advantages of a cloud.” Lately, you have been hearing about cloud computing and you know it\\’s fast becoming the new paradigm for various applications. However, you have heard mixed reviews about the potential impacts on privacy protection. You begin to research and discover that a number of the leading cloud service providers have signed a letter of intent to work together on shared conventions and technologies for privacy protection. You make a note to find out if Jason\\’s Finnish provider is signing on. After conducting research, you discover a primary data protection issue with cloud computing. Which of the following should be your biggest concern? A. An open programming model that results in easy access B. An unwillingness of cloud providers to provide security information C. A lack of vendors in the cloud computing market D. A reduced resilience of data structures that may lead to data loss. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which HPE Server family is purpose-built for HPC workloads, Big Data Analytics, object storage, and enterprise service provider needs? A. HPE ProLiant DL servers B. HPE Apollo server C. HPE Synergy servers D. HPE Edgeline servers Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/apollo-4000.html
QUESTION 2 Which industry-standard protocol is typically used to communicate with remote resources on mobile applications? A. NFS B. HTTP C. STP D. TRILL Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://ms15.voip.edu.tw/~sandra/paper/CwC.pdf
QUESTION 3 A customer is considering a refresh of their ToR switches because they need 25 GbE connectivity. Which switch should you recommend? A. FlexFabric 5945 B. FlexFabric 5940 C. FlexFabric 5980 D. FlexFabric 5710 Correct Answer: A Explaining: High-density 100GbE/40GbE/25GbE/10GbE spine/top-of-rack (ToR) connectivity Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getmobile.aspx?docname=a00049249enw
QUESTION 4 A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need? A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter B. an installed iLo Advanced license C. Secure Boot enabled D. Two-factor authentication enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which HPE tool is used to access 3PAR performance information? A. NinjaCrawler B. SAF Collect C. SAF Analyze D. NinjaStars Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A customer is running a virtualized application with the data stored on their server\\’s local storage. As the storage space is getting full, they are looking into a new storage system. Their IT generalist would like to use a single management interface for the new solution. Which solution should you recommend to the customer? A. HPE Nimble HF20 B. HPE MSA 2052 C. HPE SimpliVity 380 D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 Correct Answer: D Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf
QUESTION 7 A customer has expressed concerns about the security of using RESTful API to do a survey against their existing infrastructure. What should you say about the REST client to alleviate the customer\\’s concerns? A. It uses SNMP v2. B. It uses HTTPS. C. It uses SNMP v3. D. It uses WBEM. Correct Answer: C It defines the User-based Security Model (USM), providing for both Authenticated and Private (encrypted) SNMP messages Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3584
QUESTION 8 A customer is requesting new leaf switches for their 40-server virtualization farm. Their servers are currently equipped with 25GbE NICs. Which switch family should you recommend? A. HPE FlexFabric 5710 24SFP+ 6S+ B. HPE FlexFabric 12916E Switch with QSFP28 HB modules C. HPE FlexFabric 5945 48SFP28 8QSFP28 D. HPE FlexFabric 5710 48XGT 2QSF28 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/networking/networking-switches/hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series/p/1010907030
QUESTION 10 A customer is considering purchasing an application that requires a highly-available NUMA platform that will scale up to 16 processors. They ask you which HPE compute solution will meet their needs. Which solution should you recommend? A. HPE BladeSystem B. HPE ProLiant DL C. HPE Synergy D. HPE Superdome Flex Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na-a00041133en_us
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT During Synergy solution onboarding, the customer asks about a firmware overview of all the computing modules at once. Click where you can access the information. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 During an HPE SimpliVity solution presentation, a potential customer asks about the HPE SimpliVity RapidDR option in the Bill of Material. How should you respond? A. It allows configuring a high-availability solution between two sites for automatic failover and fallback in disaster recovery situations. B. It is required for a multi-site HPE SimpliVity configuration to send VM backups to remote clusters. C. It enables orchestration for site-to-site recovery to improve application availability during planned or unplanned events. D. It is a requirement to guarantee the 1-minute restore of a 1TB virtual machine. Correct Answer: D HPE guarantees the ability to restore a 1TB VM within one minute, meaning that the customer saved approx. 70% of time Reference: https://veracompadria.com/en/simplivity-demystified/
QUESTION 13 A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply? A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects to their management network with two uplinks. B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect to their management network. C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\\’s workload is not supported. D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network. Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which server sits in the DMZ and allows external devices to connect to the Horizon Mirage service? A. Mirage Server B. Mirage Branch Reflector C. Mirage Management Server D. Mirage Gateway Server Correct Answer: D Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/consulting/tag/horizon-mirage
QUESTION 2 Which vSphere component is used to manage multiple hosts in a cluster? A. ESXI B. vDS C. vCenter Server D. VUM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails? A. vSphere Data Protection B. High Availability C. Fault Tolerance D. vSphere Replication Correct Answer: C In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf
QUESTION 6 A company wants to implement a software-defined network solution with minimal impact on the existing environment. What additional hardware, if any, is required when implementing VMware NSX? A. A stateful inspection Firewall to take advantage of NSX\\’s built-in Firewall protection B. None. NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution. C. Special VLAN configurations for accessing NSX. D. At least two Layer 3 switches that must be converted to trunk mode. Correct Answer: B NSX is a completely non-disruptive solution which can be deployed on any IP network from any vendor ? both existing traditional networking models and next-generation fabric architectures. The physical network infrastructure already in place is all that is required to deploy a software-defined data center with NSX. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmw-nsx-networkvirtualization-design-guide.pdf
QUESTION 7 A large bank wants to automate their infrastructure provisioning. They need a portal that provides the ability to check the health of a virtual machine and perform day-two actions, such as power-on and power-off. Which product in the vRealize Suite offers this functionality? A. vRealize Orchestrator B. vRealize Operations Manager C. vRealize Automation D. vRealize Business Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which component in VMware NSX provides L2 bridging from the logical networking space VXLAN to the physical space? A. NSX virtual switch B. Logical Router control VM C. Logical router D. NSX Edge virtual appliance Correct Answer: C The logical routers can provide L2 bridging from the logical networking space (VXLAN) to the physical network (VLAN). Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-for-vSphere/6.3/nsx_63_admin.pdf
QUESTION 9 Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.) A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them. B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing. C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads. D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud. E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html
QUESTION 10 A supervisor wants employees to seamlessly log into remote applications without having to enter their credentials multiple times. What is required to support true Single Sign-On (SSO)? A. Horizon 7 and Windows Server 2016 B. Horizon 7 and any Linux Operating System C. Only Horizon 7 is required D. Horizon 7 and Identity Manager Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-architecture-planning/GUIDE8152572-1B10-42C2-B605-1EF738AC2D20.html
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture are true? (Choose two.) A. Deployment of services across clouds is manual. B. Works only on certain underlying clouds or hypervisors. C. Provides the ability to run, manage, connect, and secure applications across clouds. D. Provides cloud freedom, but not control. E. Provides the freedom to innovate across both private clouds and public clouds. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite editions? (Choose three.) A. Enterprise Plus B. Foundations C. Advanced D. Enterprise E. Professional F. Standard Correct Answer: CDF Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
QUESTION 13 What are the three vRealize Suite editions offered by VMware? A. Standard, Advanced, Enterprise B. Standard, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus C. Foundation, Standard, Enterprise D. Advanced, Enterprise, Enterprise Plus Correct Answer: A VMware vRealize Suite cloud management platform is available in three editions: Standard, Advanced, and Enterprise. New portable licensing allows customers to manage multi-vendor private and public clouds with common licensing. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html
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If you passed Exam 70-698 before it expired on March 31, 2019, you only need to take MD-101 to earn the Modern Desktop certification. Candidates for this exam are Administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.
As an Administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.
Skills measured
Deploy Windows (15-20%)
Manage devices and data (35-40%)
Configure connectivity (15-20%)
Maintain Windows (25-30%)
Latest updates Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company. You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver. You need to remove the update from Computer1. Solution: From an elevated command prompt, you run the wusa.exe command and specify the /uninstall parameter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a solution to monitor update deployments. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Windows Server Update (WSUS) B. the Update Management solution in Azure Automation C. the Update Compliance solution in Azure Log Analytics D. the Azure Security Center Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/update-compliance-monitor
QUESTION 3 Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform. In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops. Some laptops frequently generate stop errors. You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you use? A. Reliability Monitor B. Task Manager C. System Configuration D. Performance Monitor Correct Answer: A References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446
QUESTION 5 You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do? A. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain. B. Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain. C. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2. D. And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials. Which settings should you modify? A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-account-control-security-policy-settings
QUESTION 7 You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates. You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements: The configuration must be managed from a central location. Internet traffic must be minimized. Costs must be minimized. How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do? A. Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10. B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy Computer10. C. From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10. D. Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing
QUESTION 9 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and has an application named App1. You need to use Performance Monitor to collect data about the processor utilization of App1. Which performance object should you monitor? A. Process B. Processor Performance C. Processor Information D. Processor Correct Answer: A References: https://www.cse.wustl.edu/~jain/cse567-06/ftp/os_monitors/index.html
QUESTION 10 Your company has an isolated network used for testing. The network contains 20 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup. During testing, the computers must remain in the workgroup. You discover that none of the computers are activated. You need to recommend a solution to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) B. Key Management Service (KMS) C. Active Directory-based activation D. the Get-WindowsDeveloperLicense cmdlet Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/volume-activation/activate-using-key-management-service-vamt
QUESTION 11 You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do? A. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. B. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. C. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. D. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate Question Set 3
QUESTION 12 You need to sign in as LocalAdmin on Computer11. What should you do first? A. From the LAPS UI tool, view the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. B. From Local Security Policy, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. C. From the LAPS UI tool, reset the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. D. From Microsoft Intune, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/mt227395.aspx
QUESTION 13 You need to meet the technical requirements for the helpdesk users. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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