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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
Lead4pass	13	Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) (Include 2023 Newest Simulation Labs)	300-410	300-410 dumps

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured IP SLA on R1 to avoid the ISP link flapping problem, but it is not working as designed. IP SLA should wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection and then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds when the primary link is available and stabilized.

R1# *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) Change #8 ip sla 700, state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956:
%TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Up -> Down
*Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:38:59.956:
track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) Change

9 ip sla 700, state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18

15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing

Which configuration resolves the issue?

A. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1 (config-track)#delay down 30 up 20

B. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 30 up 20

C. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 20 up 30

D. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1(config-track)#delay down 20 up 30

Correct Answer: A

“wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection” -> delay down 30

“then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds” -> up 20 Under the tracked object, you can specify delays so we have to configure delay under “track 700 ip sla 700” (not under “ip sla 700”).

QUESTION 2:

The exhibit is a frame relay hub-and-spoke topology with router A as the hub.

You want to use the OSPF routing protocol between all three locations. Which interface configuration commands are required on router A? (Choose three.)

A. ip ospf network broadcast

B. ip ospf network point-to-point

C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

D. frame-relay map 10.20.10.21 221

E. frame-relay map 10.20.10.22 222

F. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.21 221 broadcast

G. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.22 222 broadcast

Correct Answer: CFG

In OSPF point-to-multipoint mode, the routers will automatically identify each neighbor. The election of a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) are not required.

This RFC-compliant mode of operation is commonly found in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke designs. In the diagram shown in the scenario, router A is the hub.

The frame relay serial interface has one DLCI for each spoke location. DLCI 221 is used by router A to communicate with router C and DLCI 222 is used to communicate with router B. On the router, A\’s serial interface, the point-to-multipoint mode is enabled with the ip ospf network configuration command. The following is the syntax of the ip ospf network command:

ip ospf network [{broadcast | nonbroadcast | point-to-multipoint | point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast}]

The command parameters are as follows:

broadcast – This mode enables the interface to emulate a LAN. This mode requires a full or partial mesh topology.

nonbroadcast – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is also referred to as NBMA mode. The neighbors must be statically configured.

point-to-multipoint – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is used in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke.

Routers use additional LSAs to discover neighboring routers instead of manually defining DRs and BDRs.

The hub router floods

link state updates (LSUs) by duplicating the update to be sent to each router using the respective DLCI.

point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast – This is a Cisco extension to the point-to-multipoint mode.

This mode is useful when the frame relay virtual circuits do not support broadcast traffic. Neighbors are manually defined.

There is no point-to-point parameter for the ip ospf command. Creating a point-to-point configuration differs in that the point-to-point parameter is executed as a parameter of the command that creates the subinterface that hosts the point-to-point connection as shown below:

Router(config)# interface serial 0.1 point-to-point

When configuring a serial interface without sub-interfaces, OSPF will check the encapsulation to determine the network type. HDLC and PPP default to point-to-point while Frame-Relay encapsulation defaults to nonbroadcast.

The frame-relay map command identifies the mapping between the Layer 3 address (IP address) and the Layer 2 address (DLCI). The frame relay virtual circuits from the hub router are identified as supporting broadcast traffic by using the frame-relay map command with the broadcast keyword.

Objective:

Layer 2 Technologies

Sub-Objective:

Explain Frame Relay

References:

Cisco > Home > Support > Support Technology > Support > IP Routing > Configure > Configuration Examples and Technotes > Initial Configurations for OSPF over Frame Relay Subinterfaces Cisco > Cisco IOS Wide-Area Networking Command Reference > frame-relay lap n201 through fr-atm connect dlci > frame-relay map

QUESTION 3:

You manage the company network, as shown in the network diagram below: You executed the following command on RouterA:

routerA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 routerA(config)# router eigrp 200 routerA(config-router)# redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the given set of commands? (Choose two.)

A. A static default route is created on RouterA

B. A summary default route is created on RouterA

C. The default route is redistributed into the EIGRP network

D. The default route is not advertised to the EIGRP network

Correct Answer: AC

The given set of commands creates a static default route on RouterA and redistributes this route into the EIGRP company network. The ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 command executed in the global configuration mode creates a static default route on the router.

The ip route command allows you to specify a static route. The redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500 command then redistributes the static default route into the EIGRP autonomous system (AS)

This implies that the EIGRP network identifies the default route as an external route, and traffic to all unknown destination subnets will be diverted to the default route.

Alternatively, default routes can be advertised into EIGRP networks by either of the following methods: Using the network 0.0.0.0 command on the router Using the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command on the router

A summary default route is not created on RouterA in the scenario. If the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command was used on RouterA, then a summary default route would be created.

The summary default route points to the 0.0.0.0 network with the null0 interface as the next-hop interface. Summary default routes are helpful for providing remote networks with a default route.

The default route is advertised to the EIGRP network because the redistribute command was executed.

This command is used to advertise the default route to the EIGRP network.

Objective:

Layer 3 Technologies

Sub-Objective:

Configure and verify default routing

References:

Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Design > Design TechNotes > Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper > Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol

QUESTION 4:

What is a characteristic of Layer 3 MPLS VPNs?

A. Traffic engineering capabilities provide QoS and SLAs.

B. Traffic engineering supports multiple IGP instances.

C. LSP signaling requires the use of unnumbered IP links for traffic engineering.

D. Authentication is performed by using digital certificates or preshared keys.

Correct Answer: A

MPLS traffic engineering supports only a single IGP process/instance

The MPLS traffic engineering feature does not support the routing and signaling of LSPs over unnumbered IP links.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_te_path_setup/configuration/xe-3s/mp-te-path-setup-xe-3s-book/mp-te-enhance-xe.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-
xml/ios/mp_te_diffserv/configuration/15-mt/mp-te-diffserv-15-mt-book/mp-te-diffserv-aw.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which control plane policy limits BGP traffic that is destined to the CPU to 1 Mbps and ignores BGP traffic that is sent at a higher rate?

A. policy-map SHAPE_BGP

B. policy-map LIMIT_BGP

C. policy-map POLICE_BGP

D. policy-map COPP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

What is the function of the IPv6 DHCP Guard feature for DHCP messages?

A. If the device is configured as a DHCP server, no message is switched.

B. All client messages are always switched regardless of the device’s role.

C. It blocks only DHCP request messages.

D. Only access lists are supported for matching traffic.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/15-sy/dhcp-15-sy-book/ip6-dhcpv6-guard.pdf

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers.

B. Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process.

C. Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes.

D. Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0.0 from the network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

The network administrator must configure R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using RADIUS.

ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1 (192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.

The administrator has configured this on R1:

aaa new-model! radius-server ISE1 address ipv4 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123 ! aaa group server tacacs+ RAD-SERV server name ISE1 ! aaa authentication login default group RAD-SERV

The network administrator cannot authenticate to access R1 based on ISE. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

A. line vty 0 4 login authentication RAD-SERV

B. aaa group server tacacs+ ISE1 server name RAD-SERV

C. aaa group server radius RAD-SERV server name ISE1

D. line vty 0 4 login authentication default

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?

A. 10.0.0.1

B. 192.168.1.2

C. 10.0.0.2

D. 192.168.3.2

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?

A. DMVPN

B. GETVPN

C. Cisco Easy VPN

D. FlexVPN

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

An engineer configured VRF-Lite on a router for VRF blue and VRF red. OSPF must be enabled on each VRF to peer to a directly connected router in each VRF.

Which configuration forms OSPF neighbors over the network 10.10.10.0/28 for VRF blue and 192.168.0.0/30 for VRF red?

A. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.240 area 0

B. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

C. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.240 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0

D. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 2 vrf red
network 192 168.0.0 0.0.0.15 are 0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and now PC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

A. Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B. Filter OSPF routes into RIP from EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2

C. Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D. Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E. Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Correct Answer: AB

Even PC2 cannot reach PC1 so there is something wrong with RIP redistribution in R2. Because RIP has higher Administrative Distance (AD) value than OSPF and EIGRP so it will be looped when doing mutual redistribution.

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from ethernet0/0 of R1.
Which configuration resolves the issue?

A. flow monitor Flowmonitor1 source Ethernet0/0

B. interface Ethernet0/1 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

C. interface Ethernet0/0 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

D. flow exporter FlowAnalyzer1 source Ethernet0/0

Correct Answer: C

…

---

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Cisco 010-151 exam questions online practice test:

Question 1:

Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. iSCSI

D. FCoE

Question 2:

Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?

A. recovery

B. redundancy

C. resiliency

D. security

E. storage

Question 3:

The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?

A. 10 Mb/s

B. 100 Mb/s

C. 1000 Mb/s

D. 10000 Mb/s

Question 4:

Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?

A. dual-mode

B. single-mode

C. straight-mode

D. multi-mode

E. subscriber-mode

Question 5:

What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?

A. 100 Mb/s

B. 1 Gb/s

C. 10 Gb/s

D. 100 Gb/s

Question 6:

Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)

A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.

B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.

C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.

D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.

E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.

Question 7:

Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number

B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo

D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Question 8:

What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A. Amber

B. Red

C. Blinking amber

D. Blinking red

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?

A. HDD 1

B. TFP Module

C. SuperCap Module

D. CPU 2

E. CMOS Battery

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

A. A is the power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is the system status LED; D is the network link activity LED.

B. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

C. A is the system status LED; B is the network link activity LED; C is the power button and power status LED; D is the identification button and LED.

D. A is the network link activity LED; B is the system status LED; C is the identification button and LED; D is the power button and power status LED.

Question 11:

Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors

C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors

D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Question 12:

Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548P

B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP

C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

D. Cisco Nexus 5596T

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?

A. MDS 9509

B. MDS 9513

C. MDS 9710

D. MDS 9506

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?

A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server

B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server

C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server

D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Question 15:

Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?

A. first-generation supervisor module

B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)

C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)

D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

C

B

B

B

D

AE

C

C

D

A

C

D

C

C

C

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Cisco 300-435 exam practice questions free online practice

QUESTION 1

The Cisco DNA Center Sites API must be used to add a device to a site, but only the site name is available. Which API
call must be used to retrieve the site identifier so that the device can be properly added to the network?

A. /dna/intent/api/site/siteId
B. /dna/intent/api/site
C. /dna/intent/api/v1/site
D. /dna/intent/api/v1/site/siteName

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-blogs/welcome-to-the-dna-center-api-support-community/bap/3663632

QUESTION 2

Which tag is required when establishing a YANG-push subscription with a Cisco IOS XE device?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/1612/b_1612_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces named Loopback0, Loopback1, and Loopback2 must be created and enabled on a Cisco
IOS XE target device in the lab group. Which loop must be added to the end of the Ansible “create int” task?

A. with_items: “{{intlist}}”
B. with_parent: “{{intlist}}”
C. with_list: “{{intlist}}”
D. with_groups: “{{intlist}}”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer needs to create a new network using the Meraki API. Which HTTP action to the URL

A. GET
B. POST
C. PUT
D. ADD

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://httpstatuses.com/201

QUESTION 5

Which path do calls begin with to implement Cisco DNA Center Intent APIs?

A. /intent
B. /dna/v1
C. /dna/api/intent/v1/
D. /dna/system/api/v1/

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/dna-center/#!device-provisioning/endpoints-and-methods-used

QUESTION 6

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing in the Ansible playbook to apply the
configuration to an interface on a Cisco IOS XE device. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file
named “device_status.py”. The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of
Do commands insert the project into Git?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.github.com/en/github/importing-your-projects-to-github/adding-an-existing-project-to-github-usingthe-command-line

QUESTION 8

A configuration has been made to add to every switch port a new port description. The script worked initially, but after a few seconds, an HTTP 429 status code was received. What causes this error message from the Meraki cloud?

A. The wrong API key is used to query the data.
B. The rate limit of the Cisco Meraki API is exceeded.
C. The API key has expired.
D. The device goes offline while you poll the API dashboard.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Developers-APIs/my-API-Limit-exceed-and-key-is-not-working/td-p/64034

QUESTION 9

Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?

A. configuration changes are automatically activated
B. uses the YANG data models to communicate
C. supports JSON and data encoding
D. validates the content of a candidate datastore

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/169/b_169_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.html

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. After executing the call, an engineer obtains the result of the Command Runner execution. The
three commands show as blocklisted in the downloaded file. What is the cause of the error?

A. The API user in Cisco DNA does not have to write privileges on the devices.
B. The engineer attempting to access the devices in Cisco DNA Center does not have privilege 15.
C. The format of the JSON body must follow the CLI format.
D. Command Runner supports only the show command and the read-only command.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional
Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.

A. bfd/synced/sessions?

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Real-Time_Monitoring_APIs/BFD

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging
application when a rogue AP is detected on the network. The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the
alert. A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:
send_to_application(message)
The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val. Which Python
Does the code complete the task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

For numbers in the range, a value is required for the application to send the alert. Besides are also included.

QUESTION 13

What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted
B. non-cacheable
C. stateless
D. implemented over HTTP
E. parameters passed in the headers

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8-0/MSE_REST_API/Guide/Cisco_MSE_REST_API_G
uide/REST_Introduction.pdf

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The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions free online practice

QUESTION 1

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or
influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. packet switching
C. policy-based routing
D. forwarding information base

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an
IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing the configuration, the customer complained about not receiving a summary route with a specific loopback address.
Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

A. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.
B. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.
C. Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.
D. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.
E. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Correct Answer: AD

When you configure an EIGRP summary route, all networks that fall within the range of your summary are suppressed
and no longer advertised on the interface. Only the summary route is advertised. But if we want to advertise a network
that has been suppressed along with the summary route then we can use leak-map feature. The below commands will
fix the configuration in this question: R1(config)#access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 R1(config)#route-map Leak-Route
permit 10 // this command will also remove the “route_map Leak-Route deny 10” command. R1(config-route-map)#match IP address 1

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the
summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.
B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.
C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.
D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Correct Answer: C

The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.
It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed
routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:
The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to
find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet
exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibits. All the serial links between R1, R2, and R3 have the same bandwidth. Users on the
192.168.1.0/24 networks report slow response times while they access resources on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a
traceroute is run on the path, it shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1
and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator do to fix the slowness?

A. Add a static route on R1 using the next-hop of R3.
B. Remove the static route on R1.
C. Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5.
D. Redistribute the R1 static route to EIGRP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

A. multi-paths eibgp 2
B. maximum-paths 2
C. maximum-paths ibgp 2
D. multi-paths 2

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_vpn_multipath.html

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?

A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions

Correct Answer: D

The class-map NMS in the exhibit did not classify traffic into specific protocols so many packets were dropped. We
should create a class map to classify the receiving traffic. It is also a recommendation of CoPP/CPP policy:
“Developing a CPP policy starts with the classification of the control plane traffic. To that end, the control plane traffic
needs to be first identified and separated into different class maps.”
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

QUESTION 7

An engineer configured a company\’s multiple area OSPF Head Office routers and Site A Cisco routers with VRF lite.
Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone:
Head Office and Site A IP cef ip vrf ABC rd 101:101! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding abc IP address
172.16.16.X 255.255.255.252 ! router OSPF 1 vrf ABC log-adjacency-changes network 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3, 4, 5, and 7 are installed at the Site A router.
Which configuration resolves this issue?

A. configure capability vrf-lite-on Site A and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
B. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
C. configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 of
ABC
D. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the
destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.
B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.
C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.
D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Correct Answer: C

The AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A router is receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routes in AS 690.
What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?

A. The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250.
B. The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map.
C. The route map is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3se/3850/irgxe-3se-3850-book/irg-prefix-filter.html

QUESTION 10

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

A. 20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
B. 32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL
C. 20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit
D. 32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Correct Answer: A

The first 20 bits constitute a label, which can have 2^20 values. Next comes a 3-bit value called Traffic Class. It was
formerly called as experimental (EXP) field. Now it has been renamed to Traffic Class (TC). This field is used for QoS-related functions. Ingress router can classify the packet according to some criterion and assign a 3-bit value to this field. If an incoming packet is marked with some IP Precedence or DSCP value and the ingress router may use such a field to assign an FEC to the packet. The next bit is the Stack bit which is called the bottom-of-stack bit. This field is used when more than one label is assigned to a packet, as in the case of MPLS VPNs or MPLS TE. The next byte is the MPLS TTL field which serves the same purpose as that of the IP TTL byte in the IP header
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5462

QUESTION 11

Refer to Exhibit.

Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?

A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF.
B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF
C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 1.
D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 20.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused
instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when
redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow
when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in the OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing
domain.
D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Correct Answer: A

When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing
loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP
from being redistributed again into the OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:

QUESTION 13

An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP
phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?

A. BOOTP port 67
B. DHCP option 66
C. BOOTP port 68
D. DHCP option 69

Correct Answer: B

Cisco 300-410 related exam list

Here is a list of Cisco 300-410 related exams, including exam PDF, exam practice questions, and complete exam questions and answers

Exam Name	Exam PDF	Exam Practice	Exam Dumps
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)	300-410 PDF	300-410 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-410.html
Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)	300-415 PDF	300-415 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-415.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)	300-420 PDF	300-420 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-420.html
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)	300-425 PDF	300-425 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-425.html
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)	300-430 PDF	300-430 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-430.html
Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)	300-435 PDF	300-435 Exam Practice	https://www.leads4pass.com/300-435.html

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Share some of the latest updated Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions for free. You can practice the test online or download the PDF to learn. All exam questions and answers come from Lead4Pass 300-410 exam dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/300-410.html (PDF +VCE). Lead4Pass has a complete Cisco 300-410 exam dumps. With PDF and VCE two modes, you can choose any! Guarantee to help you successfully pass the exam.

ps

The free Cisco 300-410 exam pdf is part of the Lead4Pass 300-410 exam dumps.
The free content is also the latest update, which can help you understand some of the content in advance.

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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which are three SKUs for Mobility Express? (Choose three.)
A. AIR-AP2802I-K9
B. AIR-AP1815W-x-K9
C. AIR-AP1815I-K9C
D. AIR-AP3802I-K9C
E. AIR-AP1852I-K9
F. AIR-AP2802I-K9C
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 2
Which three statements regarding Mobility Express are true? (Choose three.)
A. Runs wireless LAN controller function on an access point
B. Ideal for sites with up to 200access points and 2000 clients
C. Provisioning to configure the controller
D. Supported on all Wave 2 access points
E. Supports simple Over-the-Air
F. Supports Workgroup Bridge mode of operation
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which are the two advantages of having Direct Internet Access? (Choose two.)
A. Limits guest Wi-Fi at the branch
B. Secure WAN transport
C. Protects remote employees
D. Threat mitigation techniques
E. Leverage local internet path
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
What are two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price
B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which two are Cisco recommended controller options for deployment of up to 150 AP\\’s? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 8540 WLC
B. Cisco 3504 WLC
C. Cisco 5508 WLC
D. Cisco 5520 WLC
E. Cisco mobility Express
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
How does Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their
entire environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government,
private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations
B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their
environment
C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based
threat intelligence
D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization
E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW,
NGIPS and VPN
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Always on (availability groups)
B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)
C. Warm spare (using VRRP)
D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)
E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

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Current Exam List – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list.html

Latest updates Cisco 500-601 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the valid shard range for an object DN?
A. 1-64
B. 1-16
C. 0-15
D. 1-32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco ACI interaction with STP in legacy networks are true? (Choose two)
A. External switches ignore flooded BPDU frames received from the Cisco ACI fabric.
B. BPDU guard is enabled on FEX ports by default.
C. BPDU guard cannot be configured on leaf edge ports.
D. STP is enabled by default within the Cisco ACI fabric.
E. BPDU frame is flooded within EPG No configuration is required.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0? (Choose two.)
A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit shell:domains = domain / Role1 | Role2 | Role3 / Role4 | Role5 | Role6
In the Cisco AV Pair, which two options are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Role1 = Read
B. Role2 = Read
C. Role5 = Write
D. Role2 = Write
E. Role6 = Write
F. Role1 = Write
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true\\’? (Choose
two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Where does the VIP for the vPC come from?
A. assigned by Cisco ARC from the management tenant IP space.
B. allocated from the vPC domain number assigned to the vPC peers.
C. DHCP from the infra TEP pool leaf portion.
D. DHCP from the infra TEP pool VIP portion.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to successfully SSH into a Cisco ARC or switch CLI using a remote authentication server?
A. apic#rad_check//[email protected]
B. ssh apic#rad_check\\[email protected]
C. ssh apic#ad_ch?k//[email protected]
D. ssh apic@rad_check\\[email protected]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
F16438[FSM:STAGE:FAILED]: Establish connection Stage: comp/prov-VMware/ ctrlr-[RTPACILab]-TestVcenter Failed
to retrieve ServiceContent from the vCenter server 10.122.253.152(FSM-STAGE:ifc:vmmmgr:CompCtrlrAdd:Connect)

Which option is a potential reason why you would see this output while provisioning a DVS?
A. The specified data center does not exist on the vCenter m question.
B. The Cisco APIC(s) cannot reach the vCenter host/vm.
C. The Service Content process has crashed.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the vswitch policy tied to the corresponding AAEP.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the EAP Authentication type on the left to the accurate description provided on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting rogue access points that are showing up in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
What is the maximum number of APs the engineer can use to contain an identified rogue access point in the WLC?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be
configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement?
A. self-registration guest portal
B. client provisioning
C. native supplicant provisioning
D. local web auth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options are types of MFP that can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. message integrity check
B. infrastructure
C. client
D. AES-CCMP
E. RSN
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/82196-mfp.html#climfp

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose
two)
A. DHCP profiling
B. DHCP address assignment
C. passive client
D. RADIUS NAC
E. AAA override
Correct Answer: DE
Allow AAA Override: Enabled NAC State: Radius NAC (selected)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/113476-wireless-byod-ise-00.html

QUESTION 6
An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a wireless LAN controller and wants to use the combination of authentication
and privacy protocols with the highest security available. Which protocols must be configured?
A. CBC-DES with HMAC-MD5
B. CFB-AES-128 with HMAC-MD5
C. CBC-DES with HMAC-SHA
D. CBF-AES-128 with HMAC-SHA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An engineer is working on a remote site that is configured using FlexConnect. They are worried that the access points
will not send RADIUS requests directly to the authentication server is standalone mode. Which command ensures direct
authentication using the default ports as defined on the WLC?
A. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
B. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
C. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
D. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring a BYOD deployment strategy and prefers a single SSID model. Which technology is required
to accomplish this configuration?
A. mobility service engine
B. wireless control system
C. identity service engine
D. Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Please refer to the section “Single SSID Wireless BYOD Self Registration” of the below mentioned link.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/how_to/HowTo-61-BYOD-Onboarding_Registering_and_Provisioning.pdf

QUESTION 9
An engineer is changing the authentication method of a wireless network from EAP-FAST to EAP-TLS. Which two
changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Secure ACS is required.
B. A Cisco NAC server is required.
C. All authenticating clients require their own certificates.
D. The authentication server now requires a certificate.
E. The users require the Cisco AnyConnect client.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1300-series/prod_qas09186a00802030dc.html

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What do the red circles represent in the exhibit?

A. detected interferers
B. wIPs attacker
C. RSSI cutoff
D. zones of impact
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series,
CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table
below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/mobility/configuration_guide/b_mobility_3se_3850_cg/b_mobility_32se_3850_cg_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 12
How should the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2 and the Cisco WLC v7.0 be configured to support wireless client
authentication?
A. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (Cisco Airespace)
B. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (IETF)
C. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco Airespace)
D. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco IOS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option determines which RADIUS server is preferred the most by the Cisco WLC?
A. the Server Index (Priority) drop-down list
B. the server status
C. the server IP address
D. the port number
Correct Answer: A
If you are adding a new server, choose a number from theServer Index (Priority) drop-down list to specify the priority
order of this server in relation to any other configured RADIUS servers providing the same service. You can configure
up to 17 servers. If the controller cannot reach the first server, it tries the second one in the list, then the third one if
necessary, and so on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html

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Real (1-30) questions and answers for Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? 200-125 dumps
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. 200-125 dumps What is the cause of the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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Best Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design.
What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are working on a network design plan for a company with approximately 2000 sites. The sites will be connected using the public Internet. You plan to use private IP addressing in the network design, which will be routed without NAT through an encrypted WAN network. Some sites will be connected to the Internet with dynamic public IP addresses, and these addresses may change occasionally.
Which VPN solution will support these design requirements?
A. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
B. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
C. GET VPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with DMVPN through the public Internet.
D. DMVPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with GET VPN through the public Internet.
E. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
F. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the- middle attacks.
When evaluating the network, which switch security option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC address mapping?
A. ARP rate limiting
B. DHCP snooping
C. Dynamic ARP Inspections
D. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are the lead IP/MPLS network designer of a service provider called XYZ. You are leading a design discussion regarding IPv6 implementation in the XYZ MPLS network, using MPLS 6PE/6VPE techniques. 352-001 dumps
Currently, XYZ provides IPv4 multicast services over an MPLS network by using MVPN, and would like to provide parallel IPv6 multicast services.
Which three multicast solutions should be enabled? (Choose three.)
A. native IPv6, only for multicast services
B. MPLS 6PE/6VPE, because it provides IPv6 multicast support by default
C. an overlay model using Layer 2 MPLS tunnels
D. PIM-DM to enable IPv6 multicast in conjunction with MPLS 6PE/6VPE
E. MVPN for IPv6 multicast service
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct about route reflector design?
A. Route reflectors should be placed to find the best exit point from the AS.
B. The EIGRP unequal cost, load-balancing characteristic facilitates route reflector placement.
C. Route reflectors should not be placed on the data path
D. Route reflectors help find the closest exits from the AS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network. Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Root Guard
E. DTP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You are a network designer who must fine tune the convergence of an IS-IS network. The failure detection mechanism has been addressed with reliable loss-of-signal at the interface level.
Which three other tools or techniques should be employed to achieve your requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use prefix prioritization techniques.
B. Use BFD on point-to-point links.
C. Speed up LSP generation.
D. Disable LDP-IGP synchronization.
E. Speed up the initial link state computation.
F. Eliminate the time that the overload bit is advertised to neighbors.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.

Company ACME is adding a Cisco TelePresence system for real-time collaboration and wants to ensure the highest user experience. Drag and drop the necessary QoS mechanisms from the left to the right in any order. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
When a design calls for spanning VLANs across a campus network, what are two issues that need to be addressed in the design?
(Choose two.) 352-001 dumps
A. network convergence
B. network accessibility
C. fault isolation
D. application scalability
E. user experience
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What is a key role for the access layer in a hierarchical network design?
A. The access layer provides a security, QoS, and policy trust boundary.
B. The access layer provides an aggregation point for services and applications.
C. The access layer serves as a distribution point for services and applications.
D. The access layer can be used to aggregate remote users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company is designing a service provider network management solution in which customers are billed for 95th percentile network utilization. The service provider requires that an IETF standard be utilized to collect the data.
Which method should be used to collect the data?
A. IPFIX
B. NETFLOW
C. RMON
D. IPFLOW
E. NBAR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are designing a solution to eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization on a core network composed of CRS-1 devices.
Which option would eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization across the network?
A. Use Local Packet Transport Services (LPTS) to manage hardware SNMP flow rate.
B. Use the in-band control plane policy feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
C. Use the control plane policy feature and reduce SNMP flow rate.
D. Use control-plane management-plane in-band and reduce the SNMP flow rate.
E. Use the control-plane management-plane out-of-band feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You work for a large company that has just acquired another smaller company. You have been asked to lead a group of SAN experts from both companies to design the integration plan that will be used to interconnect the SANs and migrate the data from the newly acquired company to the main storage arrays.
The first thing that the team discovers is that the two SANs have the same domain IDs.
As the SAN team lead, what would you advise your team to do so that you can interconnect the two SANs while minimizing disruption?
A. Use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer between the two SANs.
B. Change the domain IDs on both SANs so that they are both unique and then connect ISLs between the SANs.
C. Use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs.
D. The two SANs cannot be merged without disruption.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge router. 352-001 dumps Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will have the most negative impact on the delay of the packet?
A. encryption
B. stateful firewall
C. MPLS encapsulation
D. GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network.
Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Port Security
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
There is an MPLS-enabled link constantly flapping on an MPLS VPN network.
Given that the network runs OSPF as the IGP protocol, which design mechanism will stabilize the network and avoid constant reconvergences?
A. BFD
B. IP Event Dampening
C. OSPF fast hellos
D. partial SPF
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A Service Provider network designer is considering the use of the G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection mechanism in order to provide resiliency in the network.
Which three concepts will be supported with the implementation G.8032? (Choose three.)
A. Ring Protection Link (RPL)
B. Ring Automatic Protection Switching (R-APS)
C. Multi-Router Automatic Protection Switching (MR-APS)
D. Automatic Protection Switching (APS) Channel
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco IOS or configuration file, from one device to another.
Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a DTE device? 640-692 dumps
A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

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