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QUESTION 1:
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?
A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.
B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.
C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.
D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.
QUESTION 2:
Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?
A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.
B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP.
C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.
D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP.
QUESTION 3:
Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)
A. Monitors are performed only by the active system.
B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.
C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.
E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system.
QUESTION 4:
A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address
when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A. 200.200.1.1
B. 150.150.10.11
C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system
D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system
QUESTION 5:
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose three.)
A. CLIENT_DATA
B. SERVER_DATA
C. HTTP_REQUEST
D. HTTP_RESPONSE
E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED
F. SERVER_SELECTED
G. SERVER_CONNECTED
QUESTION 6:
Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server\’s destination port were not 443?
A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server\’s port was not port 443.
B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.
C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended.
D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port 443.
QUESTION 7:
Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)
A. The bigtop command displays the status.
B. Only the active system\’s configuration screens are active.
C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt.
D. The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.
QUESTION 8:
The incoming client IP address is 205.12.45.52. The last five connections have been sent to members C, D, A, B, B. Given the virtual server and pool definitions and the statistics shown in the graphic, which member will be used for the next connection?
A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
QUESTION 9:
Which statement is true regarding failover?
A. Hardware failover is disabled by default.
B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role.
D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
QUESTION 10:
Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use.
A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors.
B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance.
C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust.
D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes.
QUESTION 11:
When configuring a pool member\’s monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)
A. inherit the pool\’s monitor
B. inherit the node\’s monitor
C. configure a default monitor
D. assign a monitor to the specific member
E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member
QUESTION 12:
How is MAC masquerading configured?
A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.
B. Specify the desired MAC address for each selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.
C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems.
D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating selfIP address for which you want this feature enabled.
QUESTION 13:
Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?
A. The process should always be run from the standby system.
B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.
C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.
D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run.
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QUESTION 1 Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP\\’s external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results? A. The active system will note the failure in the HA table. B. The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode. C. The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode. D. The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for the network failure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.) A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ServerSSL Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license? A. the system\\’s dossier B. the system\\’s host name C. the system\\’s base license D. the system\\’s purchase order number Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Where is persistence mirroring configured? A. It is always enabled. B. It is part of a pool definition. C. It is part of a profile definition. D. It is part of a virtual server definition. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member? A. 200.200.1.1 B. 150.150.10.11 C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use. A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors. B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance. C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust. D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Where is the loadbalancing mode specified? A. within the pool definition B. within the node definition C. within the virtual server definition D. within the pool member definition Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected? A. As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur. B. Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten seconds. C. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode. D. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will maintain active mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients using some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client\\’s IP address, but on the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal? A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select pools. B. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved. C. For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT pools could vary dependent upon need. D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client\\’s address (or network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which statement is true regarding failover? A. Hardware failover is disabled by default. B. Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover. C. If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIGIP devices will always assume the active role. D. By default, hardware fail over detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.) A. Monitors are performed only by the active system. B. Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system. C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system. D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system. E. Floating selfIP addresses are hosted only by the active system. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. The pool is marked available. If a pool is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this? A. All of the pool member nodes are responding to the ICMP monitor as expected. B. Less than 50% of the pool member nodes responded to the ICMP echo request. C. All of the members of the pool have had their content updated recently and their responses no longer match the monitor. D. Over 25% of the pool members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the custom monitor. The other respond as expected. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 If a client\\’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence? A. The connection request is not processed. B. The connection request is sent to a pology server. C. The connection request is loadbalanced to an available pool member. D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message. Correct Answer: C
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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
Manage organizational settings (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. A partner company named Fabrikam, Inc. uses an Exchange Online subscription for email. You need to ensure that all the users at Fabrikam can view the free/busy information of the users at Contoso. What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct companies. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 Case Study : Litware,Inc. Case Study Overview Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. PhysicalLocations Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. ExistingEnvironment The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels, RegionalAdmins_Munich, RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome. NetworkInfrastructure Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office. All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance. Each office has the following servers and client computers: One reverse proxy appliance One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured. Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is configured to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office. Requirements Planned Changes Litware plans to implement the following changes: Implement calendar sharing to partner companies. Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the item must be available. TechnicalRequirements Litware identifies the following technical requirements: Minimize administrative effort. Use the principle of least privilege. Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure that all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement. Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items. Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to the Junk Email folder. Problemstatements The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow. Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are open. You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office. B. Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office. C. Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users. D. Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two personal tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users. Solution: You create a new safe links policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/
QUESTION 6 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create? A. a journal rule B. a retention policy C. a retention tag D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online. You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories. Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Rpc B. EWS C. PowerShell D. ecp E. mapi F. Autodiscover Correct Answer: EF References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication (HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items to the archive mailbox. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Overview General Overview Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. PhysicalLocations Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. ExistingEnvironment Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed. You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online. Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport server. The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the Edge Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant. NetworkInfrastructure Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Requirements Planned Changes Contoso plans to implement the following changes: 1. or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix. 2. ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the content. Technical Requirements Contoso identifies the following technical requirements: 1. All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam. 2. Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars. Security Requirements Contoso identifies the following security requirements: 1. The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions. 2. All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted. 3. All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages. 4. If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message. Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered. Exhibit
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do? A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy. C. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy. D. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You have the on-premises mailboxes shown in the following table.
You add the mailbox permissions shown in the following table.
You plan to migrate the mailboxes to Exchange Online by using remote mailbox move requests. The mailboxes will be migrated according to the schedule shown in the following table.
Mailboxes migrated the same week will have their mailbox move requests included in the same batch and will be cut over simultaneously. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You run the following commands. New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives” –RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”) New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope “VIP Mailboxes” You have a user named Admin1. You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only. What should you do? A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins. B. Create a custom role group. C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group. D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU. Correct Answer: C References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER. You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync connection. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured IP SLA on R1 to avoid the ISP link flapping problem, but it is not working as designed. IP SLA should wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection and then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds when the primary link is available and stabilized.
R1# *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) Change #8 ip sla 700, state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Up -> Down *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:38:59.956: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) Change
9 ip sla 700, state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: %TRACK-6-STATE: 700 ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18
15:39:04.965: track-sta (700) ip sla 700 state Down -> Up *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Queuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing *Nov 18 15:39:04.965: track-que (700) Unqueuing CHANGED client event for Static IP Routing
Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1 (config-track)#delay down 30 up 20
B. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 30 up 20
C. R1 (config)#ip sla 700 R1(config-ip-sla)#delay down 20 up 30
D. R1(config)#track 700 ip sla 700 R1(config-track)#delay down 20 up 30
Correct Answer: A
“wait 30 seconds before switching traffic to a secondary connection” -> delay down 30
“then revert to the primary link after waiting 20 seconds” -> up 20 Under the tracked object, you can specify delays so we have to configure delay under “track 700 ip sla 700” (not under “ip sla 700”).
QUESTION 2:
The exhibit is a frame relay hub-and-spoke topology with router A as the hub.
You want to use the OSPF routing protocol between all three locations. Which interface configuration commands are required on router A? (Choose three.)
A. ip ospf network broadcast
B. ip ospf network point-to-point
C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
D. frame-relay map 10.20.10.21 221
E. frame-relay map 10.20.10.22 222
F. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.21 221 broadcast
G. frame-relay map ip 10.20.10.22 222 broadcast
Correct Answer: CFG
In OSPF point-to-multipoint mode, the routers will automatically identify each neighbor. The election of a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) are not required.
This RFC-compliant mode of operation is commonly found in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke designs. In the diagram shown in the scenario, router A is the hub.
The frame relay serial interface has one DLCI for each spoke location. DLCI 221 is used by router A to communicate with router C and DLCI 222 is used to communicate with router B. On the router, A\’s serial interface, the point-to-multipoint mode is enabled with the ip ospf network configuration command. The following is the syntax of the ip ospf network command:
broadcast – This mode enables the interface to emulate a LAN. This mode requires a full or partial mesh topology.
nonbroadcast – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is also referred to as NBMA mode. The neighbors must be statically configured.
point-to-multipoint – This RFC 2328 compliant mode is used in partial mesh topologies, such as hub-and-spoke.
Routers use additional LSAs to discover neighboring routers instead of manually defining DRs and BDRs.
The hub router floods
link state updates (LSUs) by duplicating the update to be sent to each router using the respective DLCI.
point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast – This is a Cisco extension to the point-to-multipoint mode.
This mode is useful when the frame relay virtual circuits do not support broadcast traffic. Neighbors are manually defined.
There is no point-to-point parameter for the ip ospf command. Creating a point-to-point configuration differs in that the point-to-point parameter is executed as a parameter of the command that creates the subinterface that hosts the point-to-point connection as shown below:
Router(config)# interface serial 0.1 point-to-point
When configuring a serial interface without sub-interfaces, OSPF will check the encapsulation to determine the network type. HDLC and PPP default to point-to-point while Frame-Relay encapsulation defaults to nonbroadcast.
The frame-relay map command identifies the mapping between the Layer 3 address (IP address) and the Layer 2 address (DLCI). The frame relay virtual circuits from the hub router are identified as supporting broadcast traffic by using the frame-relay map command with the broadcast keyword.
Objective:
Layer 2 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Explain Frame Relay
References:
Cisco > Home > Support > Support Technology > Support > IP Routing > Configure > Configuration Examples and Technotes > Initial Configurations for OSPF over Frame Relay Subinterfaces Cisco > Cisco IOS Wide-Area Networking Command Reference > frame-relay lap n201 through fr-atm connect dlci > frame-relay map
QUESTION 3:
You manage the company network, as shown in the network diagram below: You executed the following command on RouterA:
Which of the following statements are TRUE about the given set of commands? (Choose two.)
A. A static default route is created on RouterA
B. A summary default route is created on RouterA
C. The default route is redistributed into the EIGRP network
D. The default route is not advertised to the EIGRP network
Correct Answer: AC
The given set of commands creates a static default route on RouterA and redistributes this route into the EIGRP company network. The ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0 command executed in the global configuration mode creates a static default route on the router.
The ip route command allows you to specify a static route. The redistribute static metric 1000 1 255 1 1500 command then redistributes the static default route into the EIGRP autonomous system (AS)
This implies that the EIGRP network identifies the default route as an external route, and traffic to all unknown destination subnets will be diverted to the default route.
Alternatively, default routes can be advertised into EIGRP networks by either of the following methods: Using the network 0.0.0.0 command on the router Using the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command on the router
A summary default route is not created on RouterA in the scenario. If the ip summary-address eigrp 200 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command was used on RouterA, then a summary default route would be created.
The summary default route points to the 0.0.0.0 network with the null0 interface as the next-hop interface. Summary default routes are helpful for providing remote networks with a default route.
The default route is advertised to the EIGRP network because the redistribute command was executed.
This command is used to advertise the default route to the EIGRP network.
Objective:
Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify default routing
References:
Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Design > Design TechNotes > Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands Cisco > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper > Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
QUESTION 4:
What is a characteristic of Layer 3 MPLS VPNs?
A. Traffic engineering capabilities provide QoS and SLAs.
B. Traffic engineering supports multiple IGP instances.
C. LSP signaling requires the use of unnumbered IP links for traffic engineering.
D. Authentication is performed by using digital certificates or preshared keys.
Correct Answer: A
MPLS traffic engineering supports only a single IGP process/instance
The MPLS traffic engineering feature does not support the routing and signaling of LSPs over unnumbered IP links.
After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers.
B. Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process.
C. Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes.
D. Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0.0 from the network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8:
The network administrator must configure R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using RADIUS.
ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1 (192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.
The administrator has configured this on R1:
aaa new-model! radius-server ISE1 address ipv4 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123 ! aaa group server tacacs+ RAD-SERV server name ISE1 ! aaa authentication login default group RAD-SERV
The network administrator cannot authenticate to access R1 based on ISE. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?
A. line vty 0 4 login authentication RAD-SERV
B. aaa group server tacacs+ ISE1 server name RAD-SERV
C. aaa group server radius RAD-SERV server name ISE1
D. line vty 0 4 login authentication default
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11:
An engineer configured VRF-Lite on a router for VRF blue and VRF red. OSPF must be enabled on each VRF to peer to a directly connected router in each VRF.
Which configuration forms OSPF neighbors over the network 10.10.10.0/28 for VRF blue and 192.168.0.0/30 for VRF red?
A. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.252 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.240 area 0
B. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.15 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.240 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
D. router ospf 1 vrf blue network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 router ospf 2 vrf red network 192 168.0.0 0.0.0.15 are 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and now PC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2
B. Filter OSPF routes into RIP from EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2
C. Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.
D. Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2
E. Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.
Correct Answer: AB
Even PC2 cannot reach PC1 so there is something wrong with RIP redistribution in R2. Because RIP has higher Administrative Distance (AD) value than OSPF and EIGRP so it will be looped when doing mutual redistribution.
QUESTION 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from ethernet0/0 of R1. Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. flow monitor Flowmonitor1 source Ethernet0/0
B. interface Ethernet0/1 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output
C. interface Ethernet0/0 ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 input ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output
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