Lead4Pass F5 101 dumps update! Corrected and re-edited! Currently has 699 exam questions and answers to ensure you pass the F5 101 exam.
The F5 101 exam is the first exam required to achieve F5 Certified BIG-IP Administrator status! All candidates are required to take this exam to continue in the program. So! Lead4Pass has developed an F5 101 dumps learning plan, F5 101 dumps provide candidates with two learning methods, PDF and VCE, to truly simulate the actual exam environment! Download F5 101 dumps with PDF and VCE here: https://www.leads4pass.com/101.html.
New F5 101 dumps exam practice questions shared online:
Which of the following is a valid IP address and prefix length?
A. 192. 168.:0 177/25
B. 192 168:0. 129/25
C. 192.168:0 128/25
D. 192 168 :0 255/25
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
When DNS_REV is used as the probe protocol by the GTM System, which information is expected in the response from the probe?
A. a reverse name lookup of the GTM System
B. the list of root servers known by the local DNS
C. the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information
D. the revision number of BIND running on the requesting DNS server
Correct Answer: C
Question 3:
Which command should a BIG-IP Administrator use to resolve the domain www. F5.com?
A. grep
B. ping
C. dig
D. find
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Which level of parameter assumes the highest precedence in BIG-IP ASM System processing logic?
A. Flow
B. Object
C. Global
D. URL
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
A BIG-IP Administrator needs to make sure that requests from a single user are directed to the server that was initially selected (unless that server is marked down). What should the administrator configure?
A. caching profile
B. TCP profile
C. persistence profile
D. security policy
Correct Answer: C
Question 6:
Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device? (Choose three.)
A. Web Accelerator
B. APM
C. ARX
D. GTM
E. Firepass
F. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: ABD
These software modules that can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device are AAM, APM, and GTM.
Question 7:
Which of the following is a language used for content provided by a web server to a web client?
A. FTP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. HTML
Correct Answer: D
Question 8:
Which protocol data unit (PDU) is associated with the OSI model\’s Physical layer?
A. Frame
B. Datagram
C. Segment
D. Bit
Correct Answer: D
https//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protocol data unit
Question 9:
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose 3)
A. CLIENT_DATA
B. SERVER_DATA
C. HTTP_REQUEST
D. HTTP_RESPONSE
E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED
F. SERVER_SELECTED
G. SERVER_CONNECTED
Correct Answer: ACE
Question 10:
Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed at the network layer.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which type of certificate is pre-installed in a web browser\’s trusted store?
A. Root Certificate
B. Server Certificate
C. Client Certificate
D. intermediate Certificate
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
A BIG IP Administrator wants to add a new VLAN (VLAN 40) to an LACP trunk (named LACP01) connected to the BIG-IP device Mufti VLANS exist on LACPO1.
Which TMSH command should the BIG IP Administrator issue to add the new VLAN to the existing LACP trunk?
A. create net vlan VLAN40 (interfaces add (LACP01 {lagged)) tag 40}
B. create net vlan VLAN40 {interfaces replace-all-with {LACP01{tagged}} tag 40}
C. create net vlan VLAN40 interfaces replace all with {LACP01 {untagged)} tag 40}
D. create net vlan VLAN40 {interfaces add {LACP01 {untagged}} tag 40}
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP UCS backup file? (Choose three.)
A. the BIG-IP administrative addresses
B. the BIG-IP license
C. the BIG-IP log files
D. the BIG-IP default traps
E. the BIG-IP host name
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 14:
Which three of the following statements describe a data center object?
A. It attempts to match a DNS request with a configured wide IP.
B. It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C. It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.
D. It retains statistics for each data center.
E. It is a logical representation of a physical location.
F. It specifies how users access the Internet.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 15:
A new VLAN segment has been added to the network. Only the existing connected interface may be used. What should the BIG-IP Administrator do to allow traffic to both the existing and the new VLAN?
A. configure VLAN with Link Aggregation Control Protocols (LACP)
B. configure a tagged VLAN
C. configure an untagged VLAN
D. configure VLAN to use interface with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
Correct Answer: B
…
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Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.
Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell
Latest effective Microsoft other Certification MS-101 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. Your company has a security policy that prevents additional software from being installed on domain controllers. You need to monitor a domain controller by using Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure port mirroring. B. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure detections. C. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure detections. D. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure port mirroring. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5
QUESTION 2 You need to ensure that user access to Dropbox is authenticated by using a Microsoft 365 identity. The documents must be protected if the data is downloaded to an untrusted device. What should you do? A. From the Intune admin center, configure the Conditional access settings. B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Organizational relationships settings. C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Application proxy settings. D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Devices settings. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Your company has 5,000 Windows 10 devices. All the devices are protected by using Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). You need to view which Windows Defender ATP alert events have a high severity and occurred during the last seven days. What should you use in Windows Defender ATP? A. the threat intelligence API B. Automated investigations C. Threat analytics D. Advanced hunting Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/investigate- alerts-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat- protection/windows-defender-atp/automated-investigations-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection
QUESTION 4 You need to ensure that the support technicians can meet the technical requirement for the Montreal office mobile devices. What is the minimum of dedicated support technicians required? A. 1 B. 4 C. 7 D. 31 Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager
QUESTION 5 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to investigate user activity in Microsoft 365, including from where users signed in, which applications were used, and increases in activity during the past month. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which admin center should you use? A. Azure ATP B. Security and Compliance C. Cloud App Security D. Flow Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and- compliance
QUESTION 6 Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. Users in the research department work with sensitive data. You need to prevent the research department users from accessing potentially unsafe websites by using hyperlinks embedded in email messages and documents. Users in other departments must not be restricted. What should you do from the Security and Compliance admin center? A. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition. B. Modify the default safe links policy. C. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition. D. Create a new safe links policy. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/set-up-atp-safe-links-policies#policies-that- apply-to-specific-email-recipients
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant. The company sells products online and processes credit card information. You need to be notified if a file stored in Microsoft SharePoint Online contains credit card information. The file must be removed automatically from its current location until an administrator can review its contents. What should you use? A. a Security and Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policy B. a Microsoft Cloud App Security access policy C. a Security and Compliance retention policy D. a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies
QUESTION 8 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to identify which users performed the following privileged administration tasks: Deleted a folder from the second-stage Recycle Bin of Microsoft SharePoint Opened a mailbox of which the user was not the owner Reset a user password What should you use? A. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) audit logs B. Security and Compliance content search C. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) sign-ins D. Security and Compliance audit log search Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/activity-logs-overview
QUESTION 9 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection. You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content. What should you do? A. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet. B. From Azure Information Protection, create a policy. C. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet. D. From Azure Information Protection, configure the protection activation status. Correct Answer: B References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/kemckinn/2018/05/17/creating-labels-for-azure-information-protection/
QUESTION 10 You plan to use the Security and Compliance admin center to import several PST files into Microsoft 365 mailboxes. Which three actions should you perform before you import the data? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Exchange admin center, create a public folder. B. Copy the PST files by using AzCopy. C. From the Exchange admin center, assign admin roles. D. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create a storage account that has a blob container. E. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, deploy an add-in. F. Create a mapping file that uses the CSV file format. Correct Answer: BCF References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pst-files
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization. You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future. Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 You need to meet the technical requirement for the EU PD. data. What should you create? A. a retention policy from the Security and Compliance admin center. B. a retention policy from the Exchange admin center C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Exchange admin center D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Security and Compliance admin center Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a user named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can place a hold on all mailbox content. Which role should you assign to User1? A. eDiscovery Manager from the Security and Compliance admin center B. compliance management from the Exchange admin center C. User management administrator from the Microsoft 365 admin center D. Information Protection administrator from the Azure Active Directory admin center Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/permissions/feature-permissions/policy-and-compliance- permissions?view=exchserver-2019
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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement modern device services; implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management; and manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance.
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Lead4Pass EX294 Dumps contains 75 latest exam questions and answers, covering more than 90% of RedHat EX294 “Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 8” actual exam questions! For your best Exam Solutions.
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Latest RedHat EX294 dumps Exam Questions:
From
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
Lead4Pass
15
Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 8
EX294
Question 1:
Create a playbook called timesvnc.yml in /home/sandy/ansible using the system role time sync. Set the time to use the currently configured nip with the server 0.uk.pool.ntp.org. Enable burst. Do this on all hosts.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 2:
Create a playbook called webdev.yml in \’home/sandy/ansible. The playbook will create a directory Avcbdev on the dev host. The permission of the directory is 2755 and the owner is webdev. Create a symbolic link from /Web dev to /var/www/html/web dev. Serve a file from Avebdev7index.html which displays the text “Development” Curl http://node1.example.com/webdev/index.html to test
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 3:
Prevent Mary from performing user configuration tasks in your system.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Conclusions:
1. I find that it is common to add various service access limits in the exam RHCE. The exercises like:
require one network segment can be accessed another network segment can not be accessed, the following are some conclusions for various services:
tcp_wrappers:/etc/hosts.allow,/etc/hosts.deny
tcp_wrappers can filter the TCP\’s accessing service. TCP has the filtering function which depends on this service whether uses the function library of tcp_wrappers, or this service whether has the xinetd process of starting the function of
tcp_wrappers. tcp_wrappers\’s main configuration file is /etc/hosts.allow,/etc/ hosts.deny.
And the priority of the documents in hosts. allow is higher than hosts. deny. The visit will be passed if no match was found.
sshd,vsftpd can use the filtering service of tcp_wrappers.
Configuration example:
Notice:
The two configuration files\’ syntax can refer to hosts_access (5) and hosts_options(5) sshd_config There are four parameters in this configuration file: DenyUsers, AllowUsers, DenyGroups, AllowGroups, they are used to limit some users or
user groups to proceed with Remote Login through SSH. These parameters\’ priority level is DenyUsers->AllowUsers->DenyGroups->AllowGroups Configuration example:
httpd Service Through the /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf in parameters, can add to control the url access. Just as:
Notice:
So pay attention, deny\’s and allow\’s priority level in order deny, allow is: the backer has the higher priority level. But here, allow\’s priority has a higher priority level.
NFS Service
NFS service directly controls the visits through file /etc/exports, just as:
samba Service
Parameter hosts allow in /etc/samba/smb.conf which is used as Access Control, just as:
2.
Paying attention to using Mount parameters: _netdev, defaults when you are mounting ISCSI disk.
3.
Stop the NetworkManager /etc/init.d/NetworkManager stop chkconfig NetworkManager off
4.
When you are deploying ifcfg-ethX, add parameters: PEERDNS=no
5.
Empty the firewall in RHCSARHCE:
6.
Narrow lv steps:
7.
Mount the using command – swap which is newly added in /etc/fstab
8.
If Verification is not passed when you are installing software, can import the public key: rpm import /etc/PKI/ rpm…/…release and so on. In yum. repo, you also can deploy gpgkey, for example, gpgkey=/etc/PKI/rpm…/ …release
9.
When you are using the “Find” command to search and keep these files, pay attention to using cp -a to copy files if you use user name and authority as your searching methods.
Question 4:
SIMULATION
You are giving RHCE exam. The examiner gave you the Boot related problem and told to you that make successfully boot the System. When you started the system, System automatically asking the root password for maintenance. How will you fix that problem?
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 5:
Create a playbook called issue.yml in /home/sandy/ansible which changes the file /etc/issue on all managed nodes: If the host is a member of (lev then write “Development” If the host is a member of the test then write “Test” If the host is a member of prod then write “Production”
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Solution as:
Question 6:
SIMULATION
Given the kernel of permanent kernel parameters: sysctl=1. It can be shown on the cmd line after restarting the system. Kernel of /boot/grub/grub.conf should be a34dded finally, as:
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 7:
Make an on /storage directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access.
A. Answer: See the complete Solution below.
Correct Answer: A
1.
chmod 770 /storage
2.
Verify using: ls -ld /storage
Note:
The preview should be like this: drwxrwx— 2 root sys users 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /storage To change the permission on the directory we use the chmod command. According to the question, only the owner user (root) and group member (sys users) can
fully access the directory so:
chmod 770 /archive
Question 8:
SIMULATION
Please open the ip_forward and take effect permanently.
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 9:
SIMULATION
There are Mail servers, Web Servers, DNS Servers, and Log Server. Log Server is already configured. You should configure the mail server, web server, and DNS server to send the logs to the log server.
A.
Correct Answer: Please see the explanation
Question 10:
There were two systems:
system1, the main system on which most of the configuration takes place system2, some configuration here
We can add the cron schedule either by specifying the script’s path on the/etc/crontab file or by creating a text file on the crontab pattern.
cron helps to schedule recurring events. The pattern of cron is: Minute Hour Day of Month Month Day of Week Commands
0-59 0-23 1-31 1-12 0-7 where 0 and 7 mean Sunday.
Note * means every. To execute the command every two minutes */2.
…
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Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions free online practice
QUESTION 1
Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess B. packet switching C. policy-based routing D. forwarding information base
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing the configuration, the customer complained about not receiving a summary route with a specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)
A. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3. B. Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252. C. Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route. D. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1. E. Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.
Correct Answer: AD
When you configure an EIGRP summary route, all networks that fall within the range of your summary are suppressed and no longer advertised on the interface. Only the summary route is advertised. But if we want to advertise a network that has been suppressed along with the summary route then we can use leak-map feature. The below commands will fix the configuration in this question: R1(config)#access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 R1(config)#route-map Leak-Route permit 10 // this command will also remove the “route_map Leak-Route deny 10” command. R1(config-route-map)#match IP address 1
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?
A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas. B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table. C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated. D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.
Correct Answer: C
The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary. It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is: The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits. All the serial links between R1, R2, and R3 have the same bandwidth. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 networks report slow response times while they access resources on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a traceroute is run on the path, it shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1 and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator do to fix the slowness?
A. Add a static route on R1 using the next-hop of R3. B. Remove the static route on R1. C. Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5. D. Redistribute the R1 static route to EIGRP.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?
A. multi-paths eibgp 2 B. maximum-paths 2 C. maximum-paths ibgp 2 D. multi-paths 2
A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map. B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing. C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools D. Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
The class-map NMS in the exhibit did not classify traffic into specific protocols so many packets were dropped. We should create a class map to classify the receiving traffic. It is also a recommendation of CoPP/CPP policy: “Developing a CPP policy starts with the classification of the control plane traffic. To that end, the control plane traffic needs to be first identified and separated into different class maps.” Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices
QUESTION 7
An engineer configured a company\’s multiple area OSPF Head Office routers and Site A Cisco routers with VRF lite. Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone: Head Office and Site A IP cef ip vrf ABC rd 101:101! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding abc IP address 172.16.16.X 255.255.255.252 ! router OSPF 1 vrf ABC log-adjacency-changes network 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3, 4, 5, and 7 are installed at the Site A router. Which configuration resolves this issue?
A. configure capability vrf-lite-on Site A and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC B. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and its connected PE router under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC C. configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 of ABC D. configure capability vrf-lite-on Head Office and Site A routers under router OSPF 1 vrf ABC
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?
A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes. B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route. C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF. D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.
Correct Answer: C
The AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. A router is receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routes in AS 690. What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?
A. The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250. B. The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map. C. The route map is applied in the wrong direction. D. The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.
A. 20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL B. 32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL C. 20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit D. 32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit
Correct Answer: A
The first 20 bits constitute a label, which can have 2^20 values. Next comes a 3-bit value called Traffic Class. It was formerly called as experimental (EXP) field. Now it has been renamed to Traffic Class (TC). This field is used for QoS-related functions. Ingress router can classify the packet according to some criterion and assign a 3-bit value to this field. If an incoming packet is marked with some IP Precedence or DSCP value and the ingress router may use such a field to assign an FEC to the packet. The next bit is the Stack bit which is called the bottom-of-stack bit. This field is used when more than one label is assigned to a packet, as in the case of MPLS VPNs or MPLS TE. The next byte is the MPLS TTL field which serves the same purpose as that of the IP TTL byte in the IP header Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5462
QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit.
Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?
A. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF. B. Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF C. Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 1. D. Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with an administrative distance of 20.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP. C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in the OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain. D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.
Correct Answer: A
When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP from being redistributed again into the OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:
QUESTION 13
An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?
A. BOOTP port 67 B. DHCP option 66 C. BOOTP port 68 D. DHCP option 69
Correct Answer: B
Cisco 300-410 related exam list
Here is a list of Cisco 300-410 related exams, including exam PDF, exam practice questions, and complete exam questions and answers
Exam Name
Exam PDF
Exam Practice
Exam Dumps
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
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QUESTION 1 Which HPE Server family is purpose-built for HPC workloads, Big Data Analytics, object storage, and enterprise service provider needs? A. HPE ProLiant DL servers B. HPE Apollo server C. HPE Synergy servers D. HPE Edgeline servers Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/apollo-4000.html
QUESTION 2 Which industry-standard protocol is typically used to communicate with remote resources on mobile applications? A. NFS B. HTTP C. STP D. TRILL Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://ms15.voip.edu.tw/~sandra/paper/CwC.pdf
QUESTION 3 A customer is considering a refresh of their ToR switches because they need 25 GbE connectivity. Which switch should you recommend? A. FlexFabric 5945 B. FlexFabric 5940 C. FlexFabric 5980 D. FlexFabric 5710 Correct Answer: A Explaining: High-density 100GbE/40GbE/25GbE/10GbE spine/top-of-rack (ToR) connectivity Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getmobile.aspx?docname=a00049249enw
QUESTION 4 A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need? A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter B. an installed iLo Advanced license C. Secure Boot enabled D. Two-factor authentication enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which HPE tool is used to access 3PAR performance information? A. NinjaCrawler B. SAF Collect C. SAF Analyze D. NinjaStars Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A customer is running a virtualized application with the data stored on their server\\’s local storage. As the storage space is getting full, they are looking into a new storage system. Their IT generalist would like to use a single management interface for the new solution. Which solution should you recommend to the customer? A. HPE Nimble HF20 B. HPE MSA 2052 C. HPE SimpliVity 380 D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 Correct Answer: D Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf
QUESTION 7 A customer has expressed concerns about the security of using RESTful API to do a survey against their existing infrastructure. What should you say about the REST client to alleviate the customer\\’s concerns? A. It uses SNMP v2. B. It uses HTTPS. C. It uses SNMP v3. D. It uses WBEM. Correct Answer: C It defines the User-based Security Model (USM), providing for both Authenticated and Private (encrypted) SNMP messages Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc3584
QUESTION 8 A customer is requesting new leaf switches for their 40-server virtualization farm. Their servers are currently equipped with 25GbE NICs. Which switch family should you recommend? A. HPE FlexFabric 5710 24SFP+ 6S+ B. HPE FlexFabric 12916E Switch with QSFP28 HB modules C. HPE FlexFabric 5945 48SFP28 8QSFP28 D. HPE FlexFabric 5710 48XGT 2QSF28 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://buy.hpe.com/us/en/networking/networking-switches/hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series/p/1010907030
QUESTION 10 A customer is considering purchasing an application that requires a highly-available NUMA platform that will scale up to 16 processors. They ask you which HPE compute solution will meet their needs. Which solution should you recommend? A. HPE BladeSystem B. HPE ProLiant DL C. HPE Synergy D. HPE Superdome Flex Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na-a00041133en_us
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT During Synergy solution onboarding, the customer asks about a firmware overview of all the computing modules at once. Click where you can access the information. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 During an HPE SimpliVity solution presentation, a potential customer asks about the HPE SimpliVity RapidDR option in the Bill of Material. How should you respond? A. It allows configuring a high-availability solution between two sites for automatic failover and fallback in disaster recovery situations. B. It is required for a multi-site HPE SimpliVity configuration to send VM backups to remote clusters. C. It enables orchestration for site-to-site recovery to improve application availability during planned or unplanned events. D. It is a requirement to guarantee the 1-minute restore of a 1TB virtual machine. Correct Answer: D HPE guarantees the ability to restore a 1TB VM within one minute, meaning that the customer saved approx. 70% of time Reference: https://veracompadria.com/en/simplivity-demystified/
QUESTION 13 A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply? A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects to their management network with two uplinks. B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect to their management network. C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\\’s workload is not supported. D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network. Correct Answer: A
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Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Examine the description of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:
Examine this partial SQL statement: SELECT * FROM books_transactions Which two WHERE conditions give the same result? A. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’)); B. WHERE (borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’) OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); C. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND (member_id = A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’)); D. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND transaction_type = `RM\\’ OR member_id IN (`A101\\’, `A102\\’); E. WHERE borrowed_date = SYSDATE AND (transaction_type = `RM\\’ AND member_id = `A101\\’ OR member_id = `A102\\’); Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.) A. The ORDER BY Clause can be used in a subquery. B. A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement. C. If a subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return rows. D. A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, a GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause. E. Logical operators, such as AND, OR, and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are true reading subqueries? (Choose three.) A. A-Main query can have many subqueries. B. A subquery can have more than one main query. C. The subquery and the main query must retrieve the date from the same table. D. The subquery and main query can retrieve data from different tables. E. Only one column or expression can be compared between the subquery and main query. F. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the subquery and main query. Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 4 A non-correlated subquery can be defined as __________. (Choose the best answer.) A. A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in the outer query. B. A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table. C. A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value. D. A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.) A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row. B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes. C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query. D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL > DROP TABLE products; Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.) A. All data along with the table structure is deleted. B. A pending transaction in the session is committed. C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated. D. All views and synonyms on the table remain but they are invalidated. E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7 Examine the structure of the two tables.
Which two queries execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements are true about a full outer join? A. It includes rows that are returned by an inner join. B. It returns only unmatched rows from both tables being joined. C. It includes rows that are returned by a Cartesian product. D. It returns matched and unmatched rows from both tables being joined. E. The Oracle joins operator (+) must be used on both sides of the join condition in the WHERE clause. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://www.w3resource.com/oracle/joins/oracle-full-outer-join.php
QUESTION 9 The SQL statements executed in a user session are as follows:
Which two statements describe the consequences of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT a command in the session? (Choose two.) A. The rollback generates an error. B. No SQL statements are rolled back. C. Only the DELETE statements are rolled back. D. Only the second DELETE statement is rolled back. E. Both the DELETE statements and the UPDATE statement are rolled back. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
Which statement is true regarding the above commands? A. Both execute successfully and give correct results. B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result. D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives the wrong result. E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table:
Which query retrieves the number of products with a full list price? A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; B. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price = NULL; D. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price IS NULL; Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-aggregate-functions/oracle-avg/
QUESTION 12 Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c? A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation. B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server. C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface. D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express. E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which two statements best describe the benefits of using the WITH clause? (Choose two.) A. It can improve the performance of a large query by storing the result of a query block having the WITH clause in the session\\’s temporary tablespace. B. It enables sessions to reuse the same query block in a SELECT statement if it occurs more than once in a complex query. C. It enables sessions to store a query block permanently in memory and use it to create complex queries. D. It enables sessions to store the results of a query permanently. Correct Answer: AB
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If you passed Exam 70-698 before it expired on March 31, 2019, you only need to take MD-101 to earn the Modern Desktop certification. Candidates for this exam are Administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.
As an Administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.
Skills measured
Deploy Windows (15-20%)
Manage devices and data (35-40%)
Configure connectivity (15-20%)
Maintain Windows (25-30%)
Latest updates Microsoft MD-100 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company. You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver. You need to remove the update from Computer1. Solution: From an elevated command prompt, you run the wusa.exe command and specify the /uninstall parameter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a solution to monitor update deployments. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Windows Server Update (WSUS) B. the Update Management solution in Azure Automation C. the Update Compliance solution in Azure Log Analytics D. the Azure Security Center Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/update-compliance-monitor
QUESTION 3 Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform. In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops. Some laptops frequently generate stop errors. You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you use? A. Reliability Monitor B. Task Manager C. System Configuration D. Performance Monitor Correct Answer: A References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446
QUESTION 5 You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do? A. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain. B. Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain. C. Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2. D. And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials. Which settings should you modify? A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-account-control-security-policy-settings
QUESTION 7 You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates. You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements: The configuration must be managed from a central location. Internet traffic must be minimized. Costs must be minimized. How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do? A. Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10. B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy Computer10. C. From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10. D. Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing
QUESTION 9 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and has an application named App1. You need to use Performance Monitor to collect data about the processor utilization of App1. Which performance object should you monitor? A. Process B. Processor Performance C. Processor Information D. Processor Correct Answer: A References: https://www.cse.wustl.edu/~jain/cse567-06/ftp/os_monitors/index.html
QUESTION 10 Your company has an isolated network used for testing. The network contains 20 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup. During testing, the computers must remain in the workgroup. You discover that none of the computers are activated. You need to recommend a solution to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) B. Key Management Service (KMS) C. Active Directory-based activation D. the Get-WindowsDeveloperLicense cmdlet Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/volume-activation/activate-using-key-management-service-vamt
QUESTION 11 You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do? A. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. B. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store. C. Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. D. Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate Question Set 3
QUESTION 12 You need to sign in as LocalAdmin on Computer11. What should you do first? A. From the LAPS UI tool, view the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. B. From Local Security Policy, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. C. From the LAPS UI tool, reset the administrator account password for the computer object of Computer11. D. From Microsoft Intune, edit the policy password settings on Computer11. Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/mt227395.aspx
QUESTION 13 You need to meet the technical requirements for the helpdesk users. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.
You have the recipients shown in the following table.
The groups contain the members shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription. You have several transport rules. The rules automatically apply a disclaimer to email messages that contain certain keywords in the subject and are sent to recipients in an email domain named fabrikam.com. You receive a report that some messages are delivered without the disclaimer. You need to view which transport rules were applied to messages sent to the fabrikam.com recipients. What should you use? A. a URL trace B. a message trace C. the SMTP protocol logs D. the transport logs Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/monitoring/trace-an-email-message/run-a-message-trace-and-view-results
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1. Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You plan to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that will contain the servers shown in the following table.
The sites connect to each other by using a high-cost, slow WAN link. Each site also connects directly to the Internet. You need to ensure that outgoing email to the Internet always uses a server in the local site. What should you create? A. one Send connector that uses two smart hosts B. two Send connectors that use different smart hosts C. two scoped Send connectors that have the same namespace D. two Send connectors that have different namespaces Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization. Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com. You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server. You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client computers. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site. You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover. What should you do? A. Create an SRV record named AutoDiscover. B. Create a TXT record named AutoDiscover. C. Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet. D. Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do? A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database. B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07. C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15. D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You configure the accepted domains as shown in the following table.
You configure the MX records in DNS as shown in the following table.
In the Exchange organization you create a mail user named User1 who has the following email addresses: [email protected][email protected][email protected] For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server organization that contains the servers shown in the following table.
Users access their email by using Outlook on the web. You install Office Online Server in the London and Seattle offices. You need to ensure that users can view Microsoft Office attachments within Outlook on the web without downloading the attachments. The solution must ensure that the users can open the attachments by using the nearest server that runs Office Online Server. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the following output.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization named litwareinc.com. The organization publishes Exchange services by using a namespace of mail.litwareinc.com. You deploy a new server named EX10 to the organization. User reports that sometimes they receive warnings about certificate errors when they connect to their mailbox. The warning message reference is ex10.litwareinc.com. You need to resolve the issue. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run? A. Remove-MobileDevice B. Clear-MobileDevice C. Clear-Content D. Remove-ActiveSyncDevice Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You need to implement the required changes to the current Exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Set up directory synchronization. B. Create a remote domain. C. Configure an email address policy. D. Configure an external relay accepted domain. E. Configure an internal relay accepted domain. Correct Answer: CE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019
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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
Manage organizational settings (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. A partner company named Fabrikam, Inc. uses an Exchange Online subscription for email. You need to ensure that all the users at Fabrikam can view the free/busy information of the users at Contoso. What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct companies. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 Case Study : Litware,Inc. Case Study Overview Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. PhysicalLocations Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. ExistingEnvironment The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels, RegionalAdmins_Munich, RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome. NetworkInfrastructure Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office. All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance. Each office has the following servers and client computers: One reverse proxy appliance One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured. Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is configured to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office. Requirements Planned Changes Litware plans to implement the following changes: Implement calendar sharing to partner companies. Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the item must be available. TechnicalRequirements Litware identifies the following technical requirements: Minimize administrative effort. Use the principle of least privilege. Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure that all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement. Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items. Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to the Junk Email folder. Problemstatements The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow. Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are open. You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office. B. Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office. C. Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users. D. Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two personal tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users. Solution: You create a new safe links policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/
QUESTION 6 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create? A. a journal rule B. a retention policy C. a retention tag D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online. You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories. Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Rpc B. EWS C. PowerShell D. ecp E. mapi F. Autodiscover Correct Answer: EF References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication (HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items to the archive mailbox. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Overview General Overview Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. PhysicalLocations Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. ExistingEnvironment Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed. You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online. Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport server. The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the Edge Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant. NetworkInfrastructure Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Requirements Planned Changes Contoso plans to implement the following changes: 1. or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix. 2. ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the content. Technical Requirements Contoso identifies the following technical requirements: 1. All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam. 2. Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars. Security Requirements Contoso identifies the following security requirements: 1. The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions. 2. All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted. 3. All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages. 4. If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message. Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered. Exhibit
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do? A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy. C. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy. D. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You have the on-premises mailboxes shown in the following table.
You add the mailbox permissions shown in the following table.
You plan to migrate the mailboxes to Exchange Online by using remote mailbox move requests. The mailboxes will be migrated according to the schedule shown in the following table.
Mailboxes migrated the same week will have their mailbox move requests included in the same batch and will be cut over simultaneously. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You run the following commands. New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives” –RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”) New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope “VIP Mailboxes” You have a user named Admin1. You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only. What should you do? A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins. B. Create a custom role group. C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group. D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU. Correct Answer: C References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER. You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync connection. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
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Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft MS-201 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.leads4pass.com/ms-201.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
